Can 1 Ox of water produce 2 Ox of buoyancy?

Yes, we first find a large cylindrical container, put in 1n water, and then find a 2n cylinder with a density less than water, and the diameter of this cylinder is very close to the container, and it can be put in and the water does not overflow, so it can be imagined that the water forms a ring column around the object, and there is a small amount of water at the bottom, and the 2n object floats. The V-row is huge. You can get it.

The first floor is wonderful. Top one.

But I have doubts about the concept of "water from 1 cow". The ox is a unit of force, how can you describe water? I see what you mean. Do you mean to say, "There is so much water weighing 1 Ox on Earth"? That is, 1 Ox (Ox kg) mass of water.

I think. Yes.

Suppose we put an object in a container of almost the same size and shape as this object, and then fill the container with water, which happens to fill 1n of water, but the object is not necessarily the volume of 1n of water, its volume can be larger than the volume of 1n of water.

Now think about this scenario.

We fill a container with water, assuming there is a total of 3n water

Then put an object with a bottom area that is only a little different from the container into the container, and the water in the container will soon overflow, and only a layer of water will be on the side of the container. When there is 1n left, stop.

So how much water does this object exclude?

Suppose that if he excludes 2n of water, he will be buoyant by 2n, and all the 2n water will overflow, then the 2n buoyancy can only be generated by 1n of water in the container.

Answer: Yes.

Analysis: The two answers given are incorrect, water weighing 1n can theoretically produce great buoyancy, as shown in the figure below, the volume of water is small, but the volume of object drainage is very large, that is, there is the phenomenon of v draining v water, therefore, yes. ’

Pink is V-water, blue is V-row, and V-row is significantly larger, so a small amount of water can create more buoyancy. As long as the water can "wrap" the object, that's fine.

Water of 1 Ox cannot produce buoyancy of 10 Ox. Because the buoyancy of an object is equal to the gravitational force of the part of the liquid it displaces. That is, if all the water of 1 ox is discharged, at most it will produce the buoyancy of 1 ox, but not the buoyancy of 10 newn.

But 1 nV of water can create 10 kV of pressure. For example, medical syringes, as long as the mechanical strength of the syringe is enough, as long as the thrust is enough, it can produce a pressure of 10 N. But not buoyancy.

Can not be explained in detail: there is no 1 ox of water.

The ox is a unit of force, can water be measured by the ox?

The amount of buoyancy produced is independent of the amount of liquid, and the amount of buoyancy depends on the density of the liquid and the volume of the liquid being discharged. It's what it is, there's nothing why! This is the law of science discovered by Archimedes.

The volume of liquid discharged by the object is not equal to the volume of the liquid discharged, and the volume of the water discharged after the object is immersed in the case of filling with water, and the volume of the water discharged is what is the volume of the water discharged after the object is immersed, and if it is not filled, the volume of the water discharged has nothing to do with whether the water is overflowing or not and how much water is overflowing. In this way, it should be clear to you that if you put an object in 10 N of water, the volume of water discharged by the object can be larger than the volume of the water itself, so the buoyancy may be greater than that of 10 N of water.

This question is a deformation of the classic question "can a pound of water float a pound of wood". Many people think that they can't, thinking that buoyancy is equal to the gravitational force that lifts the liquid, and it cannot be heavier than the liquid.

In fact, the crux of the question is the question you asked: can the volume of an object be greater than the volume of a liquid? The answer is of course yes, and theoretically a pound of water can float an infinite amount of wood (of course, it can't be done).

For example, if a large beaker has only a small amount of water in it, and now put a beaker that is only a little smaller than this beaker into this beaker, and the water in it will fill the gap between the two cups.

Yes, to explain it by the hollow method, a water is made of a hollow cube, the outer edge is 5 long, and the thickness is =

The hollow part, filled with a wooden block, is a cube with a side length of 4, a wooden block, the volume v=4*4*4=64

The volume of water he discharges v=5*5*5-64=125-64=61 is the simplest example.

Summary. 1) First, the weighing method is used to find the buoyancy of the object when it is immersed in half, and then the volume of the discharged water (half of the total volume) is calculated by using the Archimedes principle, so as to obtain the volume of the object;

2) Know the weight of the object and strive for the mass of the object, use the density formula to find the density of the object, compare it with the density of water, determine the state of existence of the object, and use the floating and sinking conditions of the object to find the buoyancy of the object at this time.

An object weighing ten ox, a quarter of its volume enters the water, the pulling force is eight ox, and when all of it enters the water, buoyancy.

1) First, the buoyancy force experienced when the body of the sock is immersed in half by the weighing method, and then the volume of the water discharged (half of the total volume) is calculated by using the Archimedes' principle, so as to obtain the volume of the object by pure faith; Do a good job of wheel (2) know the weight of the object, strive for the mass of the object, use the density formula to find the density of the object, compare it with the density of water, determine the state of existence of the object, and use the floating and sinking conditions of the object to find the buoyancy of the object at this time.

I hope mine is helpful to you, I wish you a happy study, like and pay attention to it, thank you.

3 All theoretically, it can produce infinite buoyancy, and it is enough to thin the water around a huge object.

In fact, the buoyancy generated by 1n of water can be much greater than that of 1n

As shown in the figure below: red is water, yellow is V row, a small amount of water, can produce a large V row, that is, a great buoyancy.

I think so.

Suppose we put an object in a container of almost the same size and shape as this object, and then fill the container with water, which happens to fill 1n of water, but the object is not necessarily the volume of 1n of water, its volume can be larger than the volume of 1n of water.

Now consider this scenario: we fill a container with water, let's say there is a total of 3n water, and then put an object with a bottom area that is only a little different from this container into the container, and the water in the container quickly overflows, only a layer of water on the side of the container. When there is 1n left, stop.

So how much water does this object exclude? Suppose that if he excludes 2n of water, he will be buoyant by 2n, and all the 2n water will overflow, then the 2n buoyancy can only be generated by 1n of water in the container.

If there is an object that is immersed in water, the thickness of the water that wraps it can be infinitely thin, then 100n of water can actually wrap an infinitely large object, that is, the volume of water discharged can be infinitely large, and the gravity can be infinite, and it can be seen that the maximum buoyancy that water weighing 100 N must be greater than 100N

This statement is correct.

As shown in the figure above, green is 1n water, purple is v row, v row can be larger than the volume of water, so the buoyancy generated can also be greater than the gravity of the water.

I don't know what to ask.