After marriage, does the house that the woman buys in full also have to be rated with the man?

Updated on society 2024-04-29
37 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    Marital property is divided into pre-marital and post-marital property. Pre-marital personal property is not the joint property of the husband and wife, while post-marital property is the joint property of the husband and wife. In principle, the marital property is divided equally between the husband and wife.

    After marriage, the house bought by the woman in full is obtained during the existence of the husband and wife, so it belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife and must be divided equally with the man.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    Yes, in the case of divorce, the marital property is the joint property of both parties, and it needs to be scored together.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    If only you could prove that the purchase price is your own.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    This must be scored, because what you buy after marriage belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife, as long as anything you buy after marriage belongs to the husband and wife, and it is owned together, so both husband and wife have the right to divide it, if you bought it before marriage, then after marriage, the south will not have the right to share it with you, on the one hand, the house that the woman bought in full, and the man also has the right to share it with you.

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    According to the relevant property laws and regulations of our country. The property of the spouses after marriage is even if. Property registered in the name of one of the women, or purchased by the property of the woman's so-called one-person property, is also jointly owned by the husband and wife.

    This is because the property of the husband and wife after marriage belongs to the husband and wife after the marriage.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    If it is indeed a house bought after marriage, the man can indeed divide it, but if it can be proved that the woman paid in full, the man will not be able to share half of it.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    The house that the woman bought in full after marriage. We can also listen to the score with the man, I think it should be voluntary, because if two people have a good relationship, they don't count these things.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    Yes, the marriage law stipulates that the house bought after marriage, whether it is bought alone or jointly, belongs to the joint property of the two people, and once your relationship breaks down and divorces, the other party will have to share half of it.

  9. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    If the house bought by the woman in full after marriage is also a post-marital property, if it is divorced, of course, it must be divided equally with the man, if it is a house bought by the woman in full before marriage, it belongs to the personal property before marriage, and it will not be divided equally with the man when divorced.

  10. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    Does the house that the woman buys in full after marriage also have to score with the man, as long as it is a house bought after marriage, the man is eligible to share the house! If the property is pre-marital, the man will not be able to share the house!

  11. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    As long as the property is bought after marriage, it should be joint property, and the man can rate the property, unless there is an agreement between the two parties at the time of purchase, which is fair. In this way, it can be proved that it is unilateral property.

  12. Anonymous users2024-01-28

    According to the law, it is indeed a house bought after marriage, that is, the joint property of the husband and wife, and the man can indeed divide it equally, unless it can be proved that the woman paid the house in full, the man cannot share half of it.

  13. Anonymous users2024-01-27

    If the house bought after marriage belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife, in case the two people part ways in the future, they will be divided into half to the man, and now the marriage law stipulates that unless the woman writes the names of her parents on the real estate certificate, the property has nothing to do with the man.

  14. Anonymous users2024-01-26

    After marriage, both the man and the woman buy a house to be divided equally by both parties, which belongs to the joint property after marriage.

  15. Anonymous users2024-01-25

    Of course, it is to be shared equally with the man, because no matter who you contribute after marriage, it belongs to the marital property and the joint property of the husband and wife.

  16. Anonymous users2024-01-24

    If the money is earned after marriage, it is the joint property of the husband and wife, and the house bought is naturally joint property. If the woman earned the money before marriage, there is a deposit time and transfer records to prove it, and it can also be recognized as premarital property. If it is money from the woman's family, it can also be proved through the flow of money records.

    I'm afraid that there is no evidence ......

  17. Anonymous users2024-01-23

    After marriage, the woman. Bought the house in full. Do you want to share it with the man? It depends on the house that the woman bought, does the man take the money? If he didn't take the money, he had no right to share. This is the woman's. own property.

  18. Anonymous users2024-01-22

    The marital property should be joint property, and the house that the woman buys in full depends on how the house book is written. The names on the house book belong to the husband and wife, and the man can also share the house. The house book is in the woman's own name, and the man has no right to divide the property equally.

  19. Anonymous users2024-01-21

    If the husband and wife do not expressly agree to buy a house after marriage, even if only one party's name is written on the real estate certificate, it still belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife.

    If the house is bought during the marriage, and only the name of one party is written on the title deed, and there is a clear written agreement that the house belongs only to the owner of the house, then the agreement is valid and the house is personal property.

  20. Anonymous users2024-01-20

    As long as the house is bought after marriage, it is considered the joint property of the husband and wife, and whether the money is paid by the man or the woman, it belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife.

  21. Anonymous users2024-01-19

    The Marriage Act stipulates that marital property is the joint property of the husband and wife.

    The key is that after marriage, the woman's full money to buy a house is **, if it is the money given to the woman by the parents-in-law, and it is said that the money is only used by the woman, the man cannot be jointly owned with the woman.

  22. Anonymous users2024-01-18

    If the purchase price is before marriage, it does not need to be divided equally. In addition, the party accepting the divorce can file a request for more than one property, and as long as you do not file for divorce, you do not have to worry about dividing the property.

  23. Anonymous users2024-01-17

    If the woman buys the house by herself, and the real estate deed does not have the man's name, the man has no right to divide the house.

  24. Anonymous users2024-01-16

    Whoever writes it is the house of the person, and the property after marriage does not belong to the joint property of the husband and wife.

  25. Anonymous users2024-01-15

    If you were from the South before you left, you only put the money. In this way, the two of you before leaving the room are divided because the money spent every day is from the south. You pay the rent for the rest of the money.

  26. Anonymous users2024-01-14

    As long as you can prove that you bought it, it's yours, and the man can't share it.

  27. Anonymous users2024-01-13

    It depends on whether the woman is willing to share the room with you.

  28. Anonymous users2024-01-12

    Marital property is the joint property of the husband and wife, and the joint property will be divided in the event of a divorce.

  29. Anonymous users2024-01-11

    It depends on whether the man's name is on the real estate deed.

  30. Anonymous users2024-01-10

    If the real estate is in the names of both parties, it is a gift of real estate within the marriage, and the woman can share half of it.

  31. Anonymous users2024-01-09

    Buying a house after marriage is joint property, and the property is both the names of two people, that is, two people share, and the woman can share half of it.

  32. Anonymous users2024-01-08

    ?There is no house, if the money is paid by the man, and the names of both parties on the real estate certificate have changed after the marriage, whose name is Xie? Whose house does it belong to?

  33. Anonymous users2024-01-07

    This one is okay. Because the title deed is in the name of both of you, it has legal effect.

  34. Anonymous users2024-01-06

    Consult a lawyer and you will get a satisfactory answer!

  35. Anonymous users2024-01-05

    Yes, why can't there be two people's names on the regiment leader's card?

  36. Anonymous users2024-01-04

    1. Is the house bought by the man before the marriage and half of the woman after marriage?

    1. Is the house bought by the man before marriage and half of the woman after marriage, it needs to be decided according to the specific situation

    1) The house that the man bought before marriage is old, and the house has been paid off, and the real estate certificate is written in the man's name, and the house is the man's pre-marital property;

    2) The man pays the down payment before the marriage and continues to pay the balance after the marriage, which involves the part after the marriage and belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife;

    3) After marriage, the house bought by one of the spouses is also the joint property of the husband and wife.

    2. Legal basis: Article 1087 of the Civil Code of the People's Republic of China.

    In the event of a divorce, the joint property of the husband and wife shall be disposed of by mutual agreement; If an agreement is not reached, the people's court is to make a judgment based on the specific circumstances of the property and in accordance with the principle of taking care of the rights and interests of the children, the woman, and the innocent party.

    The rights and interests enjoyed by husbands or wives in the contracting and management of family land shall be protected in accordance with law.

    2. What is the scope of property before the wedding?

    The scope of pre-marital property is as follows:

    1. Property owned by individuals before marriage. Such as wages, bonuses, income from production and operation, income from intellectual property rights, property, capital gains and other legal income obtained from inheritance or gift;

    2. Property rights that one party has acquired before marriage. If one party obtains the property right of the pre-sold house before marriage and pays the price of the house in full, the actual ownership of the house is obtained after the marriage;

    3. The fruits of pre-marital property. Including personal property, pre-marital fruits and pre-marital personal property, post-marital fruits;

    4. One party exists in the form of money, equity, etc. before marriage, and after marriage it is manifested as another form of property.

  37. Anonymous users2024-01-03

    1. If the house is purchased during the marriage, then the name of the spouse can be added directly during the marriage. If the property is the joint property of the husband and wife during the marriage, even if only one person's name is written on the certificate of lack of property, it is considered the joint property of the two people. 2. Therefore, during the marriage, if you need to go through the procedures for adding the name of the real estate certificate, you only need to bring the marriage certificate, two house certificates, the original and the copy of the ID card to the "change registration" window of the real estate transaction center.

    1. The conditions required for filing a lawsuit for the division of property in divorce are as follows:

    1. The plaintiff is a citizen, legal person or other organization that has a direct interest in the case;

    2. There is a clear defendant;

    3. There are specific litigation claims, facts and reasons;

    4. It is within the scope of civil litigation accepted by the people's court and the jurisdiction of the people's court receiving the lawsuit.

    2. Materials required for the division of property in divorce:

    1. Application for transfer registration;

    2. Identity certificates of both parties to the divorce (original copy shall be submitted);

    3. Housing ownership certificate;

    4. Real estate division agreement;

    Legal basisArticle 1087 of the Civil Code of the People's Republic of China In the event of divorce, the joint property of the husband and wife shall be disposed of by mutual agreement; If an agreement is not reached, the people's court is to make a judgment based on the specific circumstances of the property and in accordance with the principle of taking care of the rights and interests of the children, the woman, and the innocent party. The rights and interests enjoyed by husbands or wives in the contracting and management of family land shall be protected in accordance with law.

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