I don t understand, can you help me answer in detail Thank you

n tends to be poor and large, then 1 n, 1 n, and 4 n all tend to be 0, so the numerator limit is 2+0=2, and the denominator limit is 1+0+0=1, so the result is 2

Because the range of cosh is limited, resulting in 1-cosh 0, only the right one can be guaranteed according to the limit definition. (The derivative requires that both the left and right limits exist and be equal).

Because of cosh 1

So 1-cosh is always not negative. Treating 1-cosh as δx is equivalent to f(0+δx)-f(0) δx

Apparently the right derivative f+(0). It is equivalent to a trend of 0

If δx can be negative, i.e., it tends to 0 from the left, then it is the left derivative f-(0).

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This is because of 1-cosh 0, so that's the right limit.

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