1 2 3 Why should it be proven for a long time

Updated on society 2024-05-13
19 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-10

    As of 2021, it is mathematically impossible to prove this problem.

    In October 2004, a piece of science news went viral in China.

    It turned out that the famous British scientific magazine.

    The Physics World has previously held a unique contest that invites readers from all over the world to choose their greatest and favorite formulas, theorems or laws. As a result, to the surprise of many people, 1+1=2 is a basic mathematical formula that even elementary school students know.

    Not only was it selected, but it was also ranked first.

    A Canadian reader gave his reasoning: "There's something wonderful about this simplest formula. The host of the selection event commented:

    Coincidentally, Nicaragua, 1971.

    A set of commemorative stamps was issued, "Ten Mathematical Formulas That Changed the Face of the World", and he was the first to do so.

    1+1=2 commemorative stamps.

    However, it is this "1+1=2".

    From the void to the infinitesimal amount.

    and the operator bracket "() to prove that 1+1=2."The proof is as follows:

    Assuming that 0 (where 0 is an infinitesimal quantity) + 0 = 1, then (0 + 0) + (0 + 0) = 1 + 1 conforms to the law of addition (merging similar terms.

    and associative law), then there is 1+1=2.

    The three-stage proves so.

    The emergence of numbers: As early as the era of ignorance, people gradually developed a sense of number in activities such as storage and distribution of prey. When a primitive man is confronted with 3 sheep, 3 apples, or 3 arrows placed together, he will dimly realize that there is a commonality among them.

    One can imagine how surprised he would have been at this time. However, it took an extremely long time to go from this primitive feeling to the formation of the abstract concept of "number".

    It is generally believed that natural numbers.

    The formation of the concept is probably as old as the use of fire, at least 300,000 years old. We can't find out exactly when addition was invented, because there was no sufficiently detailed documentation (perhaps writing was just being born). But addition undoubtedly arose for the purpose of arithmetic in the exchange of commodities or prisoners of war.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    Deformed: 3 2-3 2=3 3-3 3

    Divide both sides of the equation by 3-3 at the same time to get the Wild Cave: 2=3

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    According to the commutative law of addition, 1+ac=0=1, so 0=1 Add 2 to the mold branches on both sides, and get 2=3 And because 2=1+1, we get: 1+1=3

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    It has been proven out, and the specific explanation is as follows:1. First of all, you need to define the meaning of "1", "2" and "+". In mathematics, "1" represents a quantity, which is the most basic unit.

    And "2" represents the number of two "1s", i.e., "1+1". The "+" indicates the addition of the values, i.e. the sum of two or more values to get a new value.

    2. Next, 1+1=2 can be proved by induction. The basic idea of induction is to prove a basic proposition, then assume that this proposition is true, and use this proposition to prove the next more complex proposition, until all relevant propositions are proved.

    In this example, we can first prove that 1+1=2, and then assume that 1+1=n is true, and prove that 1+1+1=n+1 is also true. This process can be carried out or shed all the time, proving that all additions are correct.

    Therefore, it can be concluded that 1+1=2 is a mathematical theorem that has been proven, and its correctness has been fully proven and confirmed. When performing various mathematical calculations and reasoning, Tanlun can take 1+1=2 as one of the most basic axioms to derive and prove more complex mathematical propositions and theorems.

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    Proof 1 + 1 3: Because 6 6 9 9.

    Deformed: 3 2-3 2=3 3-3 3

    Eliminate 3 3 on both sides of the equation at the same time to get: 2 3.

    Because 1+1 2, 2 3.

    So 1+1 3.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    How to prove 1+1=3?

    There are rewards to write a total of 9.

    Blackpink Rotier.

    ta has more than 10,000 likes.

    Let's talk. Concern.

    Become the 12408th fan.

    Mathematically it is impossible to prove this problem.

    It turned out that the famous British scientific magazine "Physics World" had previously held a unique selection event, inviting readers from all over the world to choose their greatest and favorite formulas, theorems or laws. As a result, to the surprise of many people, the basic mathematical formula of 1+1=2, which even elementary school students know, was not only selected, but also ranked first.

    A Canadian reader gave his reasoning: "There's something wonderful about this simplest formula. The host of the selection event commented:

    Coincidentally, in 1971, Nicaragua issued a set of commemorative stamps "Ten Mathematical Formulas to Change the Face of the World", which ranked first.

    1+1=2 commemorative stamps.

    However, it is this "1+1=2".

    Prove from infinitesimal quantities and the operation sign parenthesis "() that 1+1=2."The proof is as follows:

    Assuming 0 (where 0 is infinitesimal) + 0 = 1, then (0 + 0) + (0 + 0) = 1 + 1 conforms to the law of addition (combining similar terms and associative laws), then there is 1+1 = 2.

    The three-stage proves so.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    In fact, this question is very simple, so I will pick up the key points! For example, if you go to buy a glass bottle of drink, and the salesperson tells you that if you buy two bottles, and after drinking, you can exchange the two empty bottles for one bottle of drink, then did you use the money to buy two bottles of drinks to drink three bottles of drinks? Isn't it 1+1=3?

    Hehe, thank you.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    Proof 1+1 3: 6 6 9 9

    Deformed: 3 2-3 2=3 3-3 3

    Divide both sides of the equation by 3 3 at the same time to get 2 3

  9. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    1 drop + 1 drop, one drop of water spilled, so: equal to 3

  10. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    Because 2 people working together is greater than 2 people working alone.

  11. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    1+1=2, but the plus sign can be counted as a one, so he is equal to 1+1 so it is equal to three.

  12. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    A man and a woman, the woman has a child, isn't it just one plus one equals three, don't take it seriously.

  13. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    Father and mother gave birth to me.

  14. Anonymous users2024-01-28

    That's 3. Because. If you want to see the answer, you have to pay first.

  15. Anonymous users2024-01-27

    Whether 1+1 equals 2 or 3, you must study hard in life.

  16. Anonymous users2024-01-26

    Take turns to think about it up close, think about it, think about it, think about it,

  17. Anonymous users2024-01-25

    Let a and b be two equal positive numbers.

    Then a =ab

    a²-b²=ab-b²

    a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)

    a+b=b, but a=b

    i.e. 2b=b

    Since a=b

    This gives a =ab (which is according to the axiom of equivalence).

    a-b = ab-b (this is also according to the axiom of equivalence) (a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) (according to the dietary decomposition method, i.e., the square difference formula) a+b=b

  18. Anonymous users2024-01-24

    1 is 1, 2 is 2, how can 1 and 2 be equal? But look at the following calculation, it seems that it can be equal, why, please see:

    Let a and b be two equal positive numbers.

    Then a =ab

    a²-b²=ab-b²

    a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)

    a+b=b, but a=b

    i.e. 2b=b

    If you carefully check that every step of the transformation process of this question is well-founded and reasonable?

    Since a=b

    This gives a =ab (which is according to the axiom of equivalence).

    a -b = ab-b (this is also according to the axiom of equivalence).

    a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) (according to the dietary decomposition method, i.e., the squared difference formula).

    a+b=b is a reduction, which is divided by a-b on each side of the equal sign. Yo! That's where the problem lies.

    Because the assumption of this question is a=b, that is, a-b=0Zero can't be divided, so how can you divide it by 0 on both sides of the equation? So the wrong answer was obtained.

    0, why can't you do a divisor? Let's take another look at it, if 0 can be used as a divisor, then, what is 5 0 equal to? That is, can you find a number so that multiplying it by 0 equals exactly 5?

    Everyone knows that multiplying any number by 0 will only give 0, and nothing else. That is to say, if the divisor is 0, the quotient is impure.

    Some people may wonder, can 0 0 have an infinite number of quotients? It is in this way that the results of the four operations should be guaranteed to be unique. So it doesn't make sense to say 0 0, that is, the comfortable divisor cannot be equal to 0.

    In short, it is impossible to prove 1=2 with the level of the second year of junior high school

  19. Anonymous users2024-01-23

    It makes me doubt my life! High School Math Problem Paradox Proof Questions! Proof 1=2, answer ** is wrong?

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