Discrimination The worker works for the capitalist, the capitalist gives the wage, and the two sides

Updated on society 2024-05-12
9 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-10

    I think it depends on both sides, you give the money, I work for you, I think it's all an equivalent exchange, one contributes the effort, one pays the money, one exchanges the power into money, and the other exchanges the money for the power.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    Wrong. Because, capitalist society.

    The wages of the workers are not the remuneration of the workers for their labor. There are two parts of the value created by the labor of the workers: one part is paid to the workers by the capitalists in the form of wages, which is only a small part of the labor created by the workers to maintain the necessary livelihood of the workers and their families, that is, the reproduction of labor power; The other part, which is appropriated by the capitalists without compensation, is the source of the capitalists' wealth.

    If the wages paid by the capitalists to the workers were the remuneration for all the labor of the workers, then there would be no exploitative relations between the capitalists and the workers, and there would be no gap between the rich and the poor between the capitalists and the workers.

    This is clearly unrealistic. The capitalists pay the workers in the form of wages and claim that they are the remuneration for all the labor of the workers, the purpose of which is to cover up the relationship between the capitalist and the worker who exploits and is exploited. Therefore, it is not correct to say that the wages paid by the capitalists to the workers are the income of the workers' labor.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    Capitalist workers are paid wages according to the hours they work or the results of their labor. On the surface, it seems that the workers and the rest of the line are selling not labor but labor; The wages paid by the capitalist to the worker are not the value or ** of the labor force, but the value or ** of the labor. However, this is an illusion that wages are not the value or ** of labor, and the reason for this is:

    1. Labor must exist independently before it is sold, and when the worker has a buying and selling relationship with the capitalist in the labor market, his labor activity does not yet exist, and the labor of the wage worker is carried out after the end of the sale. After the end of the sale, the worker's labor is carried out under the supervision of the capitalist, and it no longer belongs to the worker, and the worker has no right to sell the labor as a commodity.

    2. The value of commodities is the materialization of human general labor, and the value of the value is determined by the amount of labor time. If labor is a commodity, the value of labor is determined by labor, which is a meaningless repetition of synonyms. The value of labour itself cannot be determined by labour, any more than weight itself has no special weight.

    3. If labor is a commodity, according to the principle of equivalent exchange, the wages paid by the capitalist are equal to the value created by all the labor of the laborer. In this way, the capitalist cannot get the surplus value, and capitalist production does not exist.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    This view is wrong.

    The wages of workers in capitalist society are not the remuneration of workers' labor. There are two parts to the value created by the labor of workers:

    A part is paid to the workers by the capitalists in the form of wages, and it is only a small part of the labor creation of the workers to maintain the necessary livelihood of the workers and their families, that is, the reproduction of the labor force;

    Another stupid remnant, which is appropriated by the capitalists without compensation, is the source of the capitalists' fortune. If the wages paid by the capitalists to the workers were the remuneration for all the labor of the workers, then there would be no exploitative relations between the capitalists and the workers, and there would be no gap between the rich and the poor between the capitalists and the workers.

    The capitalist pays the worker in the form of wages and claims that it is the remuneration for all the worker's labour, in order to conceal the relationship between the capitalist and the worker that leads to exploitation and exploitation

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    Answer]: The buying and selling of erroneous labor power is carried out in the field of circulation, and on the face of it, the relationship between the capitalist and the hired worker is equal. But in fact, this "equality" presupposes inequality.

    The capitalists own the means of production, and the workers have nothing but to sell their labor power for a living. As soon as they leave the sphere of circulation and enter the sphere of production and distribution, the surplus value created by the hired workers is appropriated by the capitalists without compensation. Therefore, the relationship between the capitalist and the wage worker is one of exploitation and exploitation.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    Wrong, labor force = labor time x labor value at a certain time ** - the boss deducted it. The general formula for capital circulation is, g-w-g'。g'=g+△g。

    It shows that in the process of circulation, capital not only preserves its own value, but also realizes multiplication and produces surplus value, which contradicts the law of value.

    The peculiarity of the commodity of labor power lies in the fact that its use value is labor, and labor can not only create the value of the means of production, but also create a value greater than its own value, which is the surplus value, which is the fundamental purpose of the capitalists in production and the source of profits, which is very important, because it is the core of Marx's theory of surplus value, which reveals the secret of the exploitation of laborers by the capitalists.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    Here's why:

    1. The essential characteristic of capitalist ownership is that the capitalists, by virtue of their possession of the means of production, hire workers to engage in labor under the cover of the principle of equivalent exchange, and appropriate the surplus value of the wage workers. Historically, the slave social system, the feudal social system, and the capitalist social system were all systems of exploitation, but the difference was that under different systems of exploitation, the combination of laborers and the means of production was different.

    2. In a slave society, the combination of slaves and the means of production is based on the complete personal possession of slaves by slave owners. In feudal society, the combination of peasants and means of production was conditional on the personal dependence of peasants on landlords.

    3. Under capitalism, the capitalist owns the means of production and the product of labor, while the laborer has nothing and can only live by selling his labor power.

    Difference: The relationship between the capitalist and the worker is not one of total possession, nor of personal dependence, but is based on the complete personal freedom of the laborer.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    There is a difference between this. In a capitalist country, the laborer can only be oppressed and exploited by the entire capitalist class!

  9. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    Answer] :d essence of capitalist wage delay is the transformation of the value of labor power or **. The wages paid to workers by capitalists are not the value or ** of the workers' labor, but the value of the labor force. Therefore, choose D.

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