On the question of the title of the house, about the question of the title of the house

Updated on society 2024-05-07
12 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    No, the property rights of your original house have been transitioned to the new house in the default form, and the land ownership is the state or collective, you just enjoy the right to use, if it is because of the issue of demolition and compensation, you can file a lawsuit in the court, and it can be accepted!

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    Compensation was given for the original property that no longer existed, and only the state for the demolition of the property was compensated.

    Now the land is expropriated, because the expropriation is collective land, the state will pay compensation to the collective, and if the collective decides to pay compensation to all the villagers, you have a share.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    The homestead of the old house, the property right certificate is still there, and there should be property rights. However, the old house is demolished and a certain amount of compensation is given, according to the standard of compensation for demolition, the homestead of the old house is **, and the account is settled.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    The right to use land belongs to the state or the collective, and we only have the right to use, and according to the principle of "land with house", if the house is gone, the right to use the land will be gone.

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    After the demolition of the old house, there is no longer any homestead problem, and now there is no house, and there is only the problem of land compensation when expropriating, and there is no compensation for demolition, and the land is collectively owned, and the land compensation fee should also be collective, and your family can not get any compensation, as for your old certificate is still there, it is caused by the land department's land survey and change registration and renewal work, which cannot be the basis for compensation. Think about it, now there is no old house, how can you compensate for it?

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    Article 7 of Interpretation 3 of the Marriage Law stipulates that if the immovable property purchased by one of the parents for the child after marriage is registered in the name of the investor's child, it shall be regarded as a gift to only one of the children, and the immovable property shall be recognized as the personal property of one of the spouses.

    Where the immovable property purchased by both parents is registered in the name of one of the children, the immovable property may be deemed to be jointly owned by both parties in accordance with the respective parents' share of the capital contribution, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.

    According to you, your house was purchased with the joint funds of your husband and wife and the other parent, and if there is a matrimonial property dispute, it will be unfavorable to you if the man and his parents claim that the house was purchased with the parents' funding.

    Therefore, it is recommended that: 1. Negotiate with your husband to go to the real estate registration agency to change the registration and register the property as a common use for husband and wife;

    2. Preserve the evidence of your husband and wife's contributions, and in case of disputes, prove that the husband and wife jointly contributed to the house.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    Where there is difficulty, what you need is evidence, and when you ask this question, you must already understand the marriage law.

    It is very important to find evidence, and there is one more thing, you should be able to find it, if you transferred money to him when you paid him, and then he happened to use the money to do things at a certain time, which matter is considered to be common to you.

    The bank can also type the transfer slip again.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    If the man's parents cannot provide proof of capital contribution, nor can they prove that the money given at that time was given to the husband personally, then all the houses are considered to be purchased jointly by the husband and wife.

    Even if you admit that the money was given by his parents, you must bite that it was given to your family at that time, not that there is no evidence that it was given to your husband personally.

  9. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    If you get your marriage certificate before buying a house, you don't have to worry, even if it's your husband's name. If your marriage certificate is obtained after the purchase of the house, you will have trouble. The marriage law says that the house purchased before marriage belongs to the party who contributed to it, and you don't have to worry about buying it after marriage.

  10. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    If the man's parents can show proof of their contribution, you can't say that your husband and wife bought it themselves!

  11. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    The house belongs to the marital property of the husband and wife, and it can be said that it was purchased by the husband and wife in court.

  12. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    I'm going to try to give you an analysis, I hope it will help you.

    Although the house is registered in your dad's name, the house may be considered a family community because they live together. If it is demolished, your aunt has the right to divide the house. (It depends on how long your aunt has been living with you?)

    In addition, the household registration is not together, but it also depends on whether they live together).

    If your grandmother's household registration is moved to your household, will it affect your family? According to the relevant laws and regulations on demolition, there is no impact on your home. However, in some places, when formulating demolition documents, it may have a little impact, but it depends on the detailed rules of the local demolition documents.

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