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GBP = Mark =
1 mark = 105 yen.
2. Forward exchange rate: 1 pound sterling = (US dollar (US dollar =
3. Forward exchange rate: 1 pound sterling = US dollar (
The swap rate (spot GBP to USD vs. forward USD to GBP) :( less than the spread, and £5 million should be invested in the US dollar market.
Operation: Convert the pound into US dollars at the spot, invest, and sell the three-month pound sterling investment principal and interest forward, at maturity, the pound investment principal and interest will be recovered, and converted back to the US dollar at the forward exchange rate, minus the opportunity cost of the pound investment, that is, profit:
5,000,000*(1+7% 4) = GBP.
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The answer is C, the other 80,000 does not need to pay personal income tax, he can show the invoice.
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According to the Pythagorean theorem, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the two right-angled sides.
3 += , the hypotenuse of the square is equal to the meter.
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1.Borrowed from the bank, 200,000.
Liabilities increased at the same time as banks.
Borrowed 200,000 yuan from the bank.
Loan short-term loan of 200,000.
2.Repayment. Liabilities decreased at the same time as bank deposits.
Borrowing accounts payable 50,000.
Loan bank deposit of 50,000.
3.Collection of accounts receivable.
Banks increase, receivables decrease, and the total amount of additions and subtractions between assets remains unchanged.
Borrowed 40,000 yuan in bank deposits.
Credit accounts receivable 40,000.
So the total assets are 100 + 20-5 = 1.15 million.
The correct answer is A
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1.Borrow 200,000 yuan from the bank and deposit it in the bank.
Liabilities increased and assets increased by 200,000 yuan.
2.Repay the payment of 50,000 yuan with bank deposits.
Assets decreased and liabilities decreased by 50,000 yuan.
3.Recovered accounts receivable of 40,000 yuan and deposited in the bank.
Assets increased by 40,000 yuan.
Correct answer: 100 + 20-5 + (4-4) = 1.15 million yuan.
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The third item is the change in the asset class, which can be ignored.
The first item is the conversion of assets and liabilities, which affects the change of assets.
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Solution: 4 R in parallel, their total resistance.
r1=r 4=40 4=10 ohms.
After parallel connection, R1 is then connected in series with R, so the total resistance r of the circuit is total = R1 + r = 10 + 10 = 20 ohms.
The electromotive force e = 20V, the current passing through r and the total current.
i = e r total = 20 20 = 1a.
The current passing through r and the current of a branch of the parallel circuit.
i1=i/4=1/4=。
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Total resistance r total = r + r and = 20 Trunk current i = e r total = 20 20 a = 1a
Branch current i=i 4= Answer: The current flowing through r is , and the current flowing through r is 1a
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Resistor after 4 R in parallel:
r and = r 4
Current flowing through r:
i=e (r and +r).
1A current flowing through R:
i1=i/4
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