My fianc e s house and I are in my mother s name, if we divorce later, whose house is it?

1. If it has always been your mother's name, and after you get married, you inherit the ownership of the house as an heir, then the house belongs to you and your wife.

2. If the name is changed to yours before marriage, then the divorce after marriage and the house is yours, but this division of property is related to the age of marriage, and the age of marriage is more than 7 years (if I remember correctly), even if it belongs to personal property before marriage, it must be regarded as joint property and divided together.

3. If it is changed after marriage, it must be joint property!

I'm not a lawyer, but according to logic :

It was your name before the marriage, and if you have done the property notarization, it should also be yours after the divorce. If there is no justice, whether it is yours after the divorce and the time of your marriage has something to do with it Find a lawyer for advice!

If you change your name to yours after the mix, then it will be both parties after the divorce, because the marital property is jointly owned!

If you want a divorce, find a lawyer

Even if there is an answer here, will you be sure that the answer is the right one?

Good luck!

If you want to divorce before you get married, why do you have such thoughts?

Go for a pre-marital notarization of property.

If Mom dies, Dad is still in that house and it belongs to Dad.

If the father is not there, the house belongs to the child.

If the child is married. That belongs to both parties to the marriage.

In case of divorce. The house also has to be divided by two sides.

Property registered in the name of the woman's mother is not part of the joint property of the husband and wife.

According to the Marriage Law of the People's Republic of China:

Article 17 The following property acquired by husband and wife during the existence of their marital relationship shall be jointly owned by the husband and wife:

1) Wages and bonuses;

2) the income from production and operation;

3) income from intellectual property rights;

4) Property obtained by inheritance or donation, except as provided for in paragraph 3 of Article 18 of this Law;

5) Other property that shall be jointly owned.

Husbands and wives have equal rights to dispose of jointly owned property.

Article 18: In any of the following circumstances, it is the property of one of the husband and wife:

1) the pre-marital property of one of the parties;

2) Medical expenses, living allowances for the disabled, and other expenses received by one party as a result of bodily injury;

3) Property that is determined in the will or gift contract to belong to only one of the husband or wife;

4) Daily necessities for the exclusive use of one side;

5) Other property that shall belong to one side.

Article 19: Husband and wife may agree that property acquired during the existence of the marital relationship and property before marriage shall be owned separately or jointly, or partly separately or partly jointly. The agreement shall be in writing. Where there is no agreement or the agreement is unclear, the provisions of articles 17 and 18 of this Law apply.

The agreement between the husband and wife on the property acquired during the marriage and the property before the marriage is binding on both parties.

Unfortunately, if the house was purchased with your marital property, it is indeed the joint property of the husband and wife, unless you agreed upon a marital property at the time of marriage or you have evidence that it was purchased with your personal property before the marriage.

I don't know what you're messing around? If there is no agreement before buying a house, the house is joint property! Although you didn't spend a penny on your husband, unless you can prove that the money you spent to buy a house was bought with your pre-marital property, it is not considered joint property!

The property law determines whose house is registered and who's own, and he has no right to ask for division!

In the law, it is the joint property of the husband and wife, and he has a share because it is a house bought after marriage, and he asks you if you transferred the money by you.

Your mother's name is on the real estate certificate, fortunately he was wise at the beginning, otherwise he would not have paid for the house to be divided, and he would not have had his share.

It is not part of the joint property of the husband and wife. Because the title deed is in your mother's name. Not for the two of you.

The house belongs to pre-marital property, and he can't get any of it if he gets a divorce!

Since Fang Ben is not your name, it is your mother's name, and it has nothing to do with him! He can't get it! It is not a marital property, and I have consulted a lawyer for this!

If you don't belong, you don't have to give it to him, you can't find a lawyer.

The title deed is written in your mother's name, so there is no need to divide him!

Everything bought after marriage is considered the joint property of the husband and wife, regardless of who buys whose name, this is Chinese law.

It's not a joint talent, he doesn't have a penny, and the court won't award him a penny.

Your mother's name belongs to your mother's estate, and there is no his.

This house was bought by your parents, and you can't share half of it, and you don't have a share of it.

One side paid the whole money. The other side does not have any division of powers.

It is not part of the joint property of the husband and wife. There is no need for points.

Is he a man? Let you divide him in half? I really have the face to say that I will give him a few slaps. Not at all for him to be the kind of person.

It's your mother's name, but of course he doesn't.

It's not his share, it's your mother's.

In principle, it belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife, and it is divided equally in the event of divorce.

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