Why didn t Germany cross the sea from Greece in World War II to seize the Suez Canal

Because Germany's strength simply cannot do this. Germany did not have any amphibious combat capability at all, and the German air force and navy were simply not competent to take the Suez Canal, so there could be no landing, and the canal was still in the hands of the British. The only possibility was that the Germans were once very close to the Suez Canal by land, but Topluk was also at the end of Rommel's powerhouse.

Germany had this idea during World War II, preparing to invade the Middle East and join Japan in the Indian Ocean, but Britain had a Mediterranean fleet and controlled the entire Mediterranean, while the Italian fleet was completely annihilated by the British Taranto raid and could not get naval support.

Nonsense, by the time the war was fought in 1942, it was already a situation where either you died or I died, and the reason why the German army did not land in Suez from Greece was sea supremacy, and the difficulties of landing directly were the same as those of marching along North Africa, and the risk of such logistical support was also greater.

The Convention of Constantinople, signed in 1888, stipulates that the Suez Canal is open to ships of all countries, both in peace and in war. In addition, the Convention provides that there shall be no hostilities in the waters of the canal and that no fortifications shall be built along its shores.

Why didn't he go, Rommel's 3w people hit El Alamein and Montgomer used 60w people to beat back. The Great General Montgomery!!

In fact, you should ask why Germany didn't occupy Gibraltar and strangled the British troops in the Mediterranean Sea directly, you ask, I'll answer, haha.

One. The German army did not have that to come to the strength, the German source.

The navy is busy breaking diplomatic relations, and there are no more ships to seal the Strait of Gibraltar, saying that the German navy knows that it is not the emperor.

The opponent of the Dao Navy, only to use the tactics of breaking the diplomatic relationship to avoid a head-on battle with the Royal Navy, how could it go to block the Strait of Gibraltar to find a fight?

Two. To the north of the Strait of Gibraltar are Spain, a neutral country, and Gibraltar, a British naval base; To the south are Morocco, which is supposed to be a neutral country (at least not an Axis power), and Algeria, which is a French colony. Germany has no available naval base near the Strait of Gibraltar at all, and the nearest one is in France, and there is no way to block the strait, so it is not necessary to let the submarine go there.

As for the Suez Canal, Germany failed to occupy Egypt, and it can only be regarded as a whip.