Simple puzzle questions, but I can t figure it out, some people say it s simple puzzle questions to

Regardless of whether it is uniform or uneven, when it burns from the left, half an hour reaches a certain point, and there is still half an hour left to burn from this point (this is given by the title);

In turn, it burns from the other side, and it burns for half an hour at exactly this point (which is understandable, since it's half an hour when you burn from this point). (Hehe, that's a matter of understanding.) ）

You may also ask why it takes a total of 1 hour to burn an uneven rope from head to tail, and 1 hour to burn from tail to end?

Here's a quick rundown.

Suppose the time of point 1 is 1 2 hours, point 2 1 4, point 3 1 8 ,...Point n: 1 2 n

And 1 2 + 1 4 +....The +1 2 n limit is exactly 1.

<> burn the a-rope first, and then the b-rope.

The topic has been changed! It is to change it to even pulling. It's simple and straightforward! You know what?

Your "question supplement" is different from the original question!!

Because when driving, the driving method of two people can be different, for example, A can always drive at a constant speed, but B is slow first and then fast, so the time when the two of them meet is not T 2. Think about it.

However, in the original question, "it takes half an hour" can be true, because the speed of fire does not change in the same place on a rope. Even if the material is uneven, if only one head can be burned for half an hour to 1 n, then the rest can be burned for half an hour... If I start burning from that end, and burn for half an hour, it will also burn to the point of 1 n, which is the meeting point where the head and tail burn at the same time, right...

It has nothing to do with speed.

Thinking about it this way, you let this incense burn for half an hour to point A, and the rest will take half an hour to finish from your side.

So it's the same when the whole root is burned, and the two ends are burned to the hypothetical point A and then they meet.

The tube is homogeneous.

Half an hour from the left, continue to walk from the point, and there is still half an hour left (the title is given);

On the other hand, it is burned from the other side for half an hour (it is difficult to understand because it is burned from the point for half an hour) (hehe, understand the problem).

Yes, it takes 1 hour to burn a uniform rope from the beginning to the tail, and 1 hour to burn the head from the tail.

Let's talk about it briefly.

Suppose the 1st point time 1 2 hours, the 2nd point.

1 4, point 3.

Point n. 1/2^n

And 1 2 + 1 4 +....+1 2 n limit is exactly 1

Burning from beginning to end is just on one side, and it takes an hour.

Burning the head and tail at the same time, that is, burning both sides at the same time, that saves half the time, and it takes half an hour.

For example, if you eat a bowl of rice in one hour, if somebody eats a bowl of rice at the same rate as you, that means that you eat half of it, and they eat half of it, and it takes half an hour.

Since it is uneven, how can "it take half an hour to burn the head and tail at the same time"?? Q: How do you use the rope burning method to time an hour and 15 minutes? "Is it just one of a few ropes that can burn for 1 hour and 15 minutes, or something else??

Because the time to burn a rope is 1 hour, no matter which end you start burning it from, it is an hour! And the title says that the rope is uneven, just so that we don't cut the rope into several pieces and burn it separately. We divide the rope into two parts, but we don't cut the rope, the front half is evenly thick, and the second half is evenly thin!

We set both ends on fire at the same time, and they just burned to the center at different speeds, but they didn't meet at the midpoint! It's like the kind of physics problem in middle school where two cars with different speeds travel in opposite directions!

A full-length rope, a rope cut in half, and then the head and tail are burned at the same time.

If you can't take the diagonal line, there is no solution to this problem, and the reasons are as follows:

Assuming that point A is marked as 1, the one adjacent to A is marked as 2, and all the points adjacent to 2 are 1, and so on, it can be marked as shown in the following figure.

Now you have to go back to 1 from 1 and you are required to go through all the numbers without repeating them, but according to the rules, you can only go through them with 121212....There are a total of 23 1s in the picture, and there are only 21 2s, so it is impossible to complete them all (in the end, you can only go to the 22nd 1).

Similar problems can all be solved with similar parity problems.

Let me tell you, don't follow normal thinking, just put the connection beyond this range to solve the rules without violating the rules.

Because the three of them divided it equally, C finally took out 50 yuan to A and B, which means that C spent 50 yuan.

So it's 50 yuan per person, so a basket of fruit is worth 3 50 = 150 yuan.

Is that right? Have fun.

Actually, this involves the concept of limits, and if you have learned about limits, you will understand it easily. If you haven't learned the limit, you can understand it this way:

Equal, that is, the amount on both sides of the equal sign is the same, that is, "there is no difference". In other words, when a=b-x is known, if x=a-b=0, then a=b.

Returning to this question, what is the result? You will find that this result (non-negative) is less than any positive number, regardless of whether the positive number is or not. In other words, the limit is 0, or equal to 0. So 1=

"灬荄1 - "Hello.

1 3 is an infinite cyclic decimal, which is just an approximation, and it is also an infinite cyclic decimal, and it is also an approximate number (it is actually a little larger than this number,) and a number that is a little larger than this number is "1".

Good luck and goodbye.

One-third is not equal.

Just slightly equal.

Seriously, I choose B for this question, there is no standard answer to this kind of open-ended question1 1 3

I see it this way, 1 to 1 2 to 2 3 to 3, and then the second graph is the same way.

Explanation: 1 2, the position of the lower part of the first original figure is upside down, and the figure itself is upside down;

The lower part of the second original shape moves in parallel.

So answer B yes.

First 6 6 random find one side and then 3 3 find out the different weights if the same is on the other side, the same method to measure the other 6 and finally 1 1