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Anonymous users2024-02-07The original ln(2+x), the first derivative 1 (2+x), the second derivative -1 (2+x), the third derivative 2 (2+x), f (0) 2 (2+0) 1 4
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Anonymous users2024-02-06The derivative of the first derivative is called the second derivative, and the derivative above the second order can be defined by induction step by step. Derivatives of the second order and above are collectively referred to as higher-order derivatives. Conceptually, higher-order derivatives can be calculated by the rules of the first derivative, but this is not feasible in terms of practical operations.
Therefore, it is necessary to study the calculation methods of higher-order derivatives, especially arbitrary-order derivatives.
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Anonymous users2024-02-05d dx refers to the derivative of x by the following function, and this problem is the second derivative of y divided by the square of the first derivative of y, thank you.
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Anonymous users2024-02-04According to the law of derivation of composite functions, the first derivative is derived from x, and then multiplied by x by y, because y'is a function of x
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Anonymous users2024-02-03The main bai is here x=0
In this way, for du2 n *x (4n+1) if zhin is greater than 25, then 4n+1 is greater than 101 after deriving dao101, the number of x is more than 1
Substituting the genus x=0, the formula is equal to 0
And if n is less than 25, the derivative of order 101 is directly 0 and only when n = 25, that is, 2 25 * x 101
Deriving 101 times gives you 101! *2^25
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Anonymous users2024-02-02Just find the derivative one at a time, the first 101 terms are not 0, the next ones are equal to 0, and then there will be a 101 in the numerator! You can see it in a few steps.
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Anonymous users2024-02-01y = (x-1) n (x+1) n = f n g n, the n derivative obtained by Leibniz's formula y (n) = cf (n-k) g (k) where c is the number of n combinations of k, f (n-k) is the n-k derivative of f, and g (k) is the k-th derivative of g. If there is no f = x-1 term and only k = 0, then c = c = 1, f (n-k) = f (n) = n!, g (k) = g (0) = 1 (due to x = 1) y (n) (1) = n!
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Anonymous users2024-01-31It is formed into a polynomial, and the derivative is obtained by substituting x=0 multiple times.
f(x)=arcsinx, which is a McLaughlin series.
Then the coefficient to the power n is multiplied by n! Be what you want. >>>More
1. The formula you are seeking can be rewritten to the 1 n power of (1+n 2), for which you can use the second of the two important limits to rewrite, and the rewriting result is the n-squares of [(1+2 n)'s n 2nd power], and the limit result in the brackets is e, so you get the n-squares of e, find the limit for it, and the result is 1(Maybe I'm not very clear, but if you write down what I'm saying with a pen on paper, you'll understand.) ） >>>More
If the second derivative is greater than 0, it means that the first derivative is monotonically increasing over the defined domain, that is, the slope of the original function is increasing. >>>More
Content from user: Lu Yanyan.
I don't think it's the right thing to do upstairs, it's supposed to rotate the diagonal at the same angle, turn it to any position, and get the same area of the four polygons. >>>More