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Solution: Set x two-point balls.
Column equation: 3*3+2x+(14-x-3)=289+2x+14-x-3=28
20+x=28
x=814-3-8=3 (pcs).
Answer: 8 two-point shots, 3 one-point shots.
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Subtract the remaining points from the three-point shot.
Subtract the number of shots left on the three-point shot.
The number of one-point balls is 11*2-19=3
The two-point shot is 11-3 = 8.
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Let x one-point balls be put into x and y two-point balls should be put in.
then x+y+3=14 (14 shots, including 3 three-pointers) x+2y+3 3=28 (28 points in total) get y=8
Substituting x=3
That is, a total of 3 one-point shots and 8 two-point shots.
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It's a simple question.
Solution: Set a two-point shot to hit the X ball, and a one-point shot (free throw) to shoot the Y ball.
2x+y+3x3=28
x+y+3=14
Let's figure it out for yourself.
Answer: x is 8 y is 3
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Suppose the two-point shot was made x times and the one-point shot was made y times.
A total of 28 points, three three-pointers are 9 points, and the remaining score is 28-3*3=19 columns of equations 2x+y=19 x+y=11
The result of the knot is: x=8 y=3
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If there are x two-point balls, then one point (19-2x) balls.
x+(19-2x)+3=14
x=8 then 8 two-point shots and 3 one-point shots.
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Solution: Set x two-point shots and y free throws.
There is 2x+y+3*3=28, x+y+3=14
The solution is x=8, y=3
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8 on a two-point shot and 3 on a one-point (free throw)?
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Eight of two points and three of one-pointers.
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He shot 8-of-18 from two-point range and 3-of-3 from the free-throw line
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8 two-pointers and 3 one-pointers.
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46+12) divided by one-third, minus 14, and divided by two-thirds.
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Let the total number of parts be x
Completed on the first day 1 3*x+14 pieces.
Completed on the second day (x-(1 3*x+14))*2 3-12 pieces.
On the 3rd day, 46 pieces were completed, then the rolling god x=1 3*x+14+(x-(1 3*x+14))*2 3-12+46
Solve the big loss x = 174 pieces.
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Set the total to y! That is, y minus 3 points, 1y minus 12, minus 3 points, 2y plus 14 minus 46 ....All right.
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If the selling price is x, then the purchase price is (x-2).
x=6, so the purchase price is 6-2=4 yuan.
It's simple.
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Because the original selling price is profitable 2 yuan, and the current selling price is profitable yuan, so after the price change, there is less profit yuan, which is the result of a 7% discount, so this yuan is 30% of the original selling price =, so the original selling price is yuan, so the purchase price is 6-2 = 4 yuan.
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Question: Which plan is the most cost-effective?
If you want 45 cars to be x, then 45x 270, solve x 6, x take 6, then 6 250 = 1500 yuan.
If you want to take 60 cars to y, then 60y 270, the solution is y, because the car has no whole number, so y takes 5, then it takes 5 300 = 1500 yuan.
Both plans are the same price, and you can do both.
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Question: Which cars can I rent the cheapest?
Check it out for yourself, I can't guarantee that it's right.
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The upstairs has already said that I can only push it up.
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ABC.
acb=90°,∠cab=60°
ab = 2ac = 4 (cm) Pythagorean theorem.
pm⊥aby=1/2amxpm
x1tx (3 under the root number) t
3) t under the root number
When t=0, m coincides with a, nb=ab-an=ab-mn=4-1=3(cm).
At this point the amp does not exist (because am=0).
t>0 again. As cd ab in d, ad=1 2
ac=1(cm)
Pythagorean theorem. When AM>AD, APM does not exist. xtt
T assumes that mnqp is rectangular, then pq ab mn, pq=mn=1 cpq=cab=60°
The two straight lines are parallel and the isotope angles are equal.
cp=1/2pq
Pythagorean theorem. ∴ap=ac-pc=3/2
MNQP is rectangular.
pm⊥ab,∠pma=90°
a=60°
am=1/2
ap=3/4(cm)
am=1xt at this time.
t=3/4(s)
t=3/4,0
t There is a case where the mnqp is rectangular.
Suppose that cab is similar to cpq, and c is the common angle between cab and cpq.
cab=∠cpq
pq‖abpm⊥ab,qn⊥ab
MNQP is rectangular.
Same as , t=3 4
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