2 questions to find the limit. Master, please help me

Updated on society 2024-04-10
10 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    Question 1: Use variables to replace t=(2)-x, then when x 2, t 0, the original formula = lim [t*tan( 2-t)]=lim[t*cot(t)]=lim[(t sint)*cost]=cost=1 (because t tends to 0 when lim(t sint)=1).

    Question 2: When using an equivalent infinitesimal substitution x 0 (1-cosx) is equivalent to (1 2) x 2, so.

    x 0 lim(x 2) (1-cosx) is equal to x 2) [(1 2) x 2]=2 and vice versa.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    Finding the derivative, Robida's Law.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    1: de1

    2: de2

    In the first question, put [(2)-x] into the denominator and write it as 1 [(2)-x], infinity is infinite, and Robida's law gives the answer 1 3 times

    In the second question, since the equivalent infinitesimal of 1-cosx is x 2 2, it can be equivalent to replace the answer 2 directly

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    The second question is 2 when x approaches o, sinx approaches x, i.e. sinx 2 approaches x 2

    And 1-cosx=2sin2(x2) approaches 2 times x2 times x2 equals x2 2

    So the result is 2

    Question 1: Replace tanx with cot(2-x) so that it becomes (2-x) tan(2-x), so the result should be 1, because when x approaches o, x approaches tanx

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    In the second question, you write 1-cosx as sinx 2 2 by lim(sinx x)=1, or lim(x sinx)=1, (all the same, when x tends to 0), so the answer is 2

    The first question is a case of multiplying infinity by infinitesimal and also changing accordingly. I don't have a pen at this time, it's inconvenient to change, but I think it should be pi 2-x divided by 2, pi 4 + x 2 appears, and then tanx is also written in the form of sin (x 2) like the second question, and the result can be out.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    Infinity Infinity, 0 0 cases, solved by Lobida's rule, is to find the derivatives separately and then compare.

    Question 1: tgx, sinx, cosx

    sinx=1 is not considered.

    The remaining (pi 2-x) cosx derivatives up and down 1 1 1 2nd question. Derivative up and down 2x sinx and derivative 2 1 2

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    Line 3 is wrong, directly =e 2

    Note: x tends to infinity, not to 0!

  8. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    One more step, and it will be clear that the spring will collapse!

    For reference, please laugh at Na Meng's family.

  9. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    2. Use the product of the sum difference, the product of the sum difference, and the equivalent infinitesimal substitution.

    Original formula = lim(n-> sin(1 n 2) + sin(2 n 2)+sin(n/n^2)]*2sin(1/2n^2)/2sin(1/2n^2)

    lim(n->∞2sin(1/2n^2)sin(1/n^2)+2sin(1/2n^2)sin(2/n^2)+.2sin(1/2n^2)sin(n/n^2)]/(2*1/2n^2)

    lim(n->∞n^2

    lim(n->∞n^2

    lim(n->∞2sin[(n+1)/2n^2]sin(n/2n^2)*n^2

    lim(n->∞2*[(n+1)/2n^2]*(1/2n)*n^2

    lim(n->∞n^2+n)/2n^2

  10. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    These two questions have the same meaning, (2) the denominator is multiplied by the root number (x-2) + the root number under the root number 2

    The next question is the same.

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