Question about World Heritage, help, urgent!

Updated on society 2024-06-16
4 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-12

    The notarial deed can only be that the house in the name of the old man belongs to you, and the wife's cannot belong to you. Because the husband and wife were joint property at that time, the old man could only dispose of his own part of the joint property. The rest of the property is inherited by law.

    In case of dispute, litigation is available.

    A few friends upstairs. Thank you very much.

    But what about the money my sister took out in advance? Do you want to pay it back? Now no one knows about this passbook. But what should I do if I find it out?

    Also, although the house said that the old man and his wife would give it to my sister and brother-in-law after their death, the old man and his wife divorced soon, and the property relationship was completed, and the house still belonged to the old man himself.

    The house should belong to your sister and brother-in-law, and the other property should be inherited by law. I suggest you consult.

    Suggestion. Upstairs friends. Thank you very much.

    But what about the money my sister took out in advance? Do you want to pay it back? Now no one knows about this passbook. But what should I do if I find it out?

    I asked, and he said that this part of the money withdrawn in advance should be counted as having been disposed of by the old man before his death. It should not be counted in the inheritance. Is that the case?

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-11

    The house should have your share. If the property was purchased by your parents after marriage, it is joint property. That's the premise.

    Although your name is not on the title deed, you, as your mother's first heir, inherit one-half of your mother's share of the property together with your father, which means that you have a quarter of the property. After 100 years of your father's reign, if your father and your stepmother have no children, you and your stepmother shall have the right to inherit the property to which your father is entitled by consent, which is one-half of three-quarters of the original property, i.e. three-eighths. I don't know if this explanation is clear.

    Quantitatively, the total amount of the property is considered 100, and your parents as co-owners are each entitled to 50. After your mother's death, you and your father each inherit 25, at which point your father owns 75. A hundred years after your father, you and your stepmother will each inherit your father's.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-10

    You can now ask for a division of your mother's estate.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    First of all, there should be no objection that the house is the joint property of your parents, and after your mother's death, if there is no written will for her share, you and your father will inherit your mother's share jointly according to the provisions of the statutory succession.1 2 After your father's death, you have his full share of the house, because the house is your father's personal property for your stepmother before marriage, and she has no right to divide it, and if your father has children after remarriage, then he can only dispose of his share1 2 freely, and the excess part has no right to dispose of it. FYI.

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