Excuse me! Can my wife divide the property? 5

Before the law, the name of the property is your father, which means that it is not the joint property of your husband and wife, and there is no right to divide it. Mind your general legal knowledge to learn a little.

Is that your name on the title deed? If it's your father's, she won't be able to share your house.

Legal couples are okay.

If your mother transfers the house to your name after you get married, this is a gift, and if you and your mother enter into a gift agreement before the transfer and determine that the property is only given to you alone, then the property belongs to your personal property, not the joint property of the husband and wife, and the wife cannot ask for division. If your mother is no longer alive, then the estate acquired after the marriage is the joint property of the husband and wife, unless your mother makes a will that the property will be inherited by you alone, then your wife cannot claim a division.

Society is too realistic, you are right, it proves that you are still a scheming person.

In my opinion, this is better:

1. Before you get married, write a "Property Gift Agreement" with your mother on the issue of the house, that is to say, it is given to you, and there is no wife at this time, of course, there will be no share of her.

2. Do a pre-marital property notarization to prove that the house is yours.

Do the above two steps, and your mind will be solved.

I can see that you are worried about a lot of things, but according to the law on the second floor has been answered, in view of your various questions, I think even if one day you find a suitable marriage partner, you will be separated one day because of these things, so there is only one way to protect your problems, that is, either you find a particularly virtuous wife, love for life, then you will never have to worry about it, or you write a clear agreement before marriage, Let your wife accept it calmly. There are misfortunes in marriage, but there should be no transactions in marriage.

This is your personal property before marriage, as long as you do not move your wife's household registration in after marriage and your wife's name is not written on the property certificate.

Hehe, yes.

It is recommended that the landlord have a prenuptial agreement.

It depends on how you deal with it, you do a property appraisal before you get married, then she can't share any of your property after the divorce! But not every family can do it!

The front means the same as the second floor.

But you are too pessimistic, you will definitely not be able to do this, others can do this, but you can't be like that, you will always stick to your principles, that kind of insight will affect your character. It's good to have a home, don't think so much, where are so many things, don't think about it.

Why are you worried about divorce before you get married, it's OK to do premarital property registration before marriage.

Do a prenuptial property notarization, and that's it. However, this may affect the relationship.

Do a prenuptial property notarization, and that's it. However, this may affect the relationship, but it is better to go in a good direction.

If you are separated, you won't be able to. Collectively go and consult a lawyer...

Do not get married, or do a pre-marital notarization of property.

Go to the law firm to make a single personal certificate before the comprador real estate certificate! Then it's just your name on the title deed!

The house you bought before you got married is not counted as marital property!

If you divorce, you can agree with her to share 10% of her, if the negotiation fails, if the lawsuit is carried out, according to the marriage law, the house belongs to the pre-marital property, that is, the house belongs to you, the court awarded you, you only need to give your wife her capital contribution, and the share of the increase in the value of the house, that is, 10% of the increase in value to her, and then repay her capital contribution.

It depends on the name of the house, and the house bought during the marriage, no matter who pays how much, is normally the joint property of the husband and wife, unless there is a special agreement. So, you're wrong, it's not what she pays. Unless the other party is at fault at the time of the divorce.

The house you bought after marriage, don't even think about it, you buy the money, the money ** comes, you can't tell clearly, my parents said I have money, your wife said no, it's all out of you after marriage, she took the cash from home, what should you do? Nor can the court determine whether it will be one and a half in the end.

The fact that the house is the joint property of the husband and wife after marriage is irrefutable, if you can show the proof of payment at that time to prove that it is the full amount paid by your family, then you can let the woman 、、、 regardless of the property

The title deed is a name and a gift that the two of you can't match.

It is certain that the house is joint property, because the property owner writes that if the man's father gives it out at one time, it is necessary to consider whether it is a gift or a loan at that time according to the actual situation.

Then you have to prove that the money was paid by you at that time, and if you want to provide that the money was given by your family, then he always has a bank account to check at that time.

Society is crazy, so people have assimilated in the context of this big scum. Women are either too lacking in a sense of tranquility and longing for a safe haven, or they are vain and want to have a crazy foundation.

After the husband died of drunkenness, in order to live, the woman handed over the children to the in-laws to raise, went out to work, and sent enough living expenses to the children every year, and the compensation obtained by the husband after being drunk was taken by the in-laws, and the woman did not take any of it, a few years later, the woman wanted to reorganize the family, but the in-laws put forward harsh requirements and wanted to pay a huge amount of money, so she was willing to hand over her granddaughter to her daughter-in-law to raise and rebuild the family.

It's your personal pre-marital property, and your wife can't share it.

Is the closing date before the marriage? You have to be able to prove it.

You won't be able to share her personal pre-marital property.

Pre-marital property is personal property, rest assured, it can't be divided!

If you are sure that it is a pre-marital property, then your wife will not get !!

Of course, she can get half of everything in your name.

Half of all property between husband and wife.

It's a pre-marital property, and it has nothing to do with her, and it won't be divided with her.

Before marriage, she was counted as a person, and she would not be divided.

The house is divided according to the proportion of the mother and the husband and wife. Couples have a total of 50% share, and calculate that the 50% of the repaid loan is divided equally with the appreciation of the house.

The score must be 55 points, one and a half, and it has been written in great detail The unpaid 400,000 loans can be summed up by the two first, and the court will decide if it doesn't work.

The house is sold in half by one person (or sold by one party at a cost), or the loan is repaid by two people, and one party lives in the house and pays rent to the other party. Or if you file a lawsuit in court and let you know the situation, you may be able to get a little more money.

Not getting a divorce is the best way to go.

This kind of divorce property division is divided into many situations.

The following are the joint property of the husband and wife:

1. If there is no clear agreement between one or both parties during the existence of the husband and wife relationship, even if only one person's name is written on the real estate certificate, it will be recognized as the joint property of the husband and wife;

2. If the parents of both parties contribute to the purchase of the house, and the property right is registered in the name of one of the children, the real estate can be recognized as jointly owned by both parties according to the share of their parents' contributions, unless otherwise agreed by the parties;

3. One of the husband and wife signs a house purchase contract before marriage, pays the down payment and applies for a loan with personal property, and the husband and wife repay the loan together after marriage, and the real estate is registered in the name of the party who paid the down payment, and the property is handled by agreement between the two parties when divorced.

The following are counted as personal property of a party:

1. After marriage, if one of the parents contributes to the purchase of real estate for the children, and the property rights are registered in the name of the children of the investor, according to the provisions of the Marriage Law, it is regarded as a gift from the investor to only one of the children, and the real estate is recognized as the personal property of one of the husband and wife;

2. If one of the husband and wife wants to buy a house independently at their own expense, they can borrow the name of their parents to buy a house in elite real estate, and then their parents will give it to themselves. According to the law, if one of the parents does not state that the property was given to both spouses, it is considered that the property is a gift to one of the spouses.

3. The two parties enter into a property agreement before marriage and notarize it, so that the ownership of the property after marriage will be executed with reference to the agreement.

4. One of the spouses voluntarily declares that he or she will renounce the ownership of the property.