Is it an infinitesimal quantity for both the numerator and denominator of the limit to be 0

Updated on educate 2024-03-03
20 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    1. The numerator and denominator are.

    This statement is incorrect.

    No matter what grade you are in, no matter what level of reading you read, the denominator can never be the denominator.

    There is no ambiguity in this point.

    2. The numerator denominator of the limit can approach 0, but the denominator cannot be.

    Approaching. 0, with equals.

    It's not the same thing.

    Trends in limit calculations.

    tendency, if the numerator and denominator are tending towards.

    That's the infinitive.

    To calculate what the final ratio is, a variety of methods must be used.

    The numerator and denominator all tend towards.

    The result could be:

    0, which may be a non-zero constant, too.

    It may be infinity, and it depends on the specific topic to be determined.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    The constant function 0 is infinitesimal in the defined domain, but the infinitesimal is not 0.

    Looking at the definition, for any given positive number (no matter how small it is), there is always a positive number δ(or positive x) that makes the inequality 0<|x-x○|Or|x|>x) satisfies inequality |f(x)|The function f(x) is called an infinitesimal quantity when x x (or x x) and is denoted as lim

    x)=0x→x○。

    If we define f(x)=0 (for everything x u), then it is infinitesimal within u.

    But it should be noted that the number 0 alone cannot be called an infinitesimal quantity, an infinitesimal quantity is a variable, which is a characteristic of the variable that expresses the change of the independent variable, and only when f is defined in a hollow neighborhood can we talk about whether it is infinitesimal at that point.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    Yes. The limit of a b is 0 and the limit of b is also du0, then a = b(a b) is two.

    zhi has a limit dao formula.

    The product is answered according to the limit.

    There is a limit, and the limit is the product of the two limits, that is, 0.

    The idea of limits is the basic idea of calculus, and it is a series of important concepts in mathematical analysis, such as the continuity of functions, derivatives (0 to obtain the maximum), and definite integrals, which are defined with the help of limits.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    Yes. The limit of a b is 0 and the limit of b is also 0, then a = b(a b) is the product of two equations with limits, and according to the limit algorithm, there is a limit, and the limit is the product of the two limits, that is, 0

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    Yes, this can be done using Lopida's rule of 0 0 or

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    Yes, strike first.

    The limit of this fraction exists, bai

    Secondly, the denominator limit is 0, if your current DU numerator limit is not 0, for zhi1 or dao, 2, or other numbers, any numerator that is not 0 is more than the previous denominator of 0, the limit is infinity.

    This means that there is no limit to this fraction.

    This is contrary to our conditions.

    Therefore, there is a limit to the fraction, the denominator limit is 0, and the numerator limit exists and is 0

  7. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    Your understanding is wrong, it depends on the numerator and the denominator, generally you have to convert the unknown number on the numerator to the denominator, so that the numerator is the number, the limit of the denominator is 0, and then the limit is infinite.

  8. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    Yes, the limit of the form of 1 0 is infinity.

    After reading your question, to be precise:

    The limit of the denominator is 0, and the limit of the numerator has a limit and the limit is not 0 (the limit of the numerator is a finite number, or infinity), then the limit of the fraction is infinity.

    The numerator is a definite number and is a special case where the limit is a finite number.

    When the numerator is an unknown limit, it is impossible to tell whether the whole limit is infinite, because it is necessary to know whether the numerator is also infinitesimal and who is the higher order infinity than the denominator.

  9. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    Summary. Hello, glad to answer for you. When the numerator and denominator are both infinite, the limit formula for rational functions is limf(x)=a f(x)=a+infinitesimus, and the core concept of infinitesimal analysis is:

    Definitions of basic concepts such as superreal systems, continuous functions, derivatives, differentiation and integration. A hyperreal number system is an ordered "superset" of a real number system, containing an "infinitesimal" superreal number.

    3.What is the limit formula for a rational function when the numerator and denominator are both infinity? What is infinitesimal division?

    Hello, I am inquiring for you here, please wait a while, I will reply to you immediately

    Hello, I am happy to answer for you. When the numerator and denominator are both infinite, the limit formula of rational functions is to use limf(x)=a f(x)=a+infinitesimal and infinitesimal The core concepts of the analysis are: the definition of superreal number system, continuous function, derivative, differentiation and integration and other basic general principles of number concepts.

    A hyperreal number system is an ordered "superset" of a real number system, containing an "infinitesimal" superreal number.

    I hope the above can help you, I wish you a happy life, if you are willing to give a thumbs up, thank you.

  10. Anonymous users2024-01-28

    If the molecular limit is not 0 at this time, assuming that it is a number a then a 0 is infinity, the limit does not exist.

    This problem is actually using Lobida's rule, which should be used when the limit of the denominator is 0, and the limit of the numerator is also 0

  11. Anonymous users2024-01-27

    Because only if the numerator is also 0, the whole limit will exist, and it will be meaningful!

  12. Anonymous users2024-01-26

    Because the limit of the whole formula exists.

    Assuming that the limit of the numerator is not dao0, then its limit is either non-zero and has a privilege value, or (plus or minus) infinity.

    If it is a non-zero finite value, obviously the limit of the whole fraction is infinity, and if it is (plus or minus) infinity, the limit of the whole fraction is (plus or minus) infinity, and it is not right, then the only possibility is that the molecular limit is 0

  13. Anonymous users2024-01-25

    1,2 is type 0 0.

    3,4 is type.

    1), the original limit = lim(x tends to 0) 1 2* (4x) x 2)ln(1+x) is equivalent to Xiangdan x

    The original limit = lim (x tends to spring at 0) x x =1 x tends to infinity, and the limit value does not exist.

    3) The numerator and denominator both tend to infinity, and the derivative is sought at the same time.

    Original limit = lim(x tends to 0+) lnx).'/cotx)'

    lim(x tends to 0+) 1 x) 1 sin x)lim(x tends to 0+) sinx x *sinx, sinx x tends to the constant 1, and then multiplied by sinx, i.e., 0, then the limit value is zero.

    4) e x can be 1 + x + x 2 2!+x^3/3!+.x^n/n!, after dividing by x, there are still x terms, tending to infinity.

  14. Anonymous users2024-01-24

    It should be a limit that exists and is not equal to 0

    At this time, if the denominator.

    The limit is not 0 and is a constant that is not equal to 0.

    Assuming a, the limit is equal to the molecule multiplied by 1 a

    1 A is bounded, multiplied by the numerator is the infinitesimal brother of the selling code.

    That is, the modulation limit is 0, which contradicts the known limit that is not 0.

    The denominator limit is also 0

  15. Anonymous users2024-01-23

    Usually, when the numerator and denominator are infinitesimal of the same order.

    or infinity. , the extreme age impulse limit of the fraction is a non-zero constant.

    Understand 'peers'.

    On the contrary, the rent is also split, so that the equivalent infinitesimal can be found.

    infinity). <

    For reference, please smile and accept the disadvantages.

  16. Anonymous users2024-01-22

    The limit of the existence of a finitely large number allows zhi to be in a small critical domain near a certain point.

    The absolute value of the difference between the value and the number with authority is less than any predetermined positive number that is any small one.

    If the denominator in the fraction tends to 0 and the numerator does not, the numerator may be a non-zero finite value or infinity In either case, the non-zero finite value divided by infinitesimal = infinity, infinity divided by infinitesimal = infinity is not a finite value, that is, the limit does not exist.

    So the reverse is that if the denominator tends to 0 in the fraction, the numerator tends to 0, and the infinitesimal divided by the infinitesimal has the possibility of a limit.

  17. Anonymous users2024-01-21

    If the limit of the molecule is a non-zero constant or infinity, the limit of the whole should be infinite, not a non-zero constant, so the limit of the molecule must be 0 by elimination

  18. Anonymous users2024-01-20

    There are functions: f(x), g(x), when: lim (x-->a) f(x) g(x) = 0 0 (or ), (called 0 0 and infinitive), then the 'Raveda law' can be used as a limit calculation:

    Back to 1, lim (x-->a) f(x) g(x) = lim (x-->a) f '(x) g '(x) if, lim (x-->a) f '(x) g '(x) is still an infinitive 0 0 or , then use the 'Raveda rule' again: 2, lim (x-->a) f(x) g(x) = lim (x-->a) f ''x) g ''x) until the limit is solved.

  19. Anonymous users2024-01-19

    According to the infinitesimal judgment, the numerator denominator is infinitesimal of the same order.

  20. Anonymous users2024-01-18

    Think about it, if the limit exists, the limit of the denominator is 0,

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