Please help, there are a few questions in Western economics that you can t answer

y(1+20%)=x(1+30)%

y=so is a proportional function.

The higher the income, the greater the demand for this commodity.

The demand for necessities is not much affected by income.

So this kind of is a luxury.

bai1) Let x commodity **px, y commodity **py, and the wage rate is known duph=20

Therefore, the budget equation is: x·

Solution: (1) y=c+i

y=100+, y=1250, that is, the is curve is a straight line perpendicular to the horizontal axis;

200=l=, then: r=this is the lm curve;

2) Equilibrium income y=1250;Interest rate r=; The investment remains unchanged at i=150(3) new LM curve: 220=, r=

The equilibrium income y=1250, the interest rate r=, the interest rate falls, the equilibrium income remains unchanged, and the investment remains unchanged at 150;

4) There is no crowding out effect. This is because the investment in this question has nothing to do with interest rates.

Note: First, the IS curve can be vertical, when Di dr 0, that is, the investment is not sensitive to interest rates, which is common in planning regimes;

Second, when solving the lm curve, the actual supply of money m p should be considered, but if there is no p in the problem, it is considered to be p = 1.

Actually, this question is a variant question, and the original question is like this.

In a two-sector economy, it is assumed that the demand for money l=, the money supply is 200, the consumption is c 100, and the investment i = 140 5r;

1) Based on these data, find the equations of is and lm, and draw the curves of is and lm.

2) If the money supply increases from 200 to 220, how does the LM curve move? What is the equilibrium income, interest rate, consumption and investment?

3) Why is the equilibrium income increase equal to the LM curve movement?

It changed the original investment i related to the interest rate r to l related, and the rest of the matter remained largely unchanged. The second question was complicated and pasted when it was not changed.,It's still the i that asked.。

The specific answer is already available, and it is recommended that you do the original question more scientifically.

Also: the shooter's bird answer is correct.

These are the basic questions of macroeconomics

Question 1: Solution: (1) by y=c+i+g

y=[Substituting t=, we get the IS curve: y=4250-125r(2) from l=m (there is no horizontal on this m, that is, the real money supply) to get the lm curve: y=2000+250r

3) It is connected by the IS-LM curve, i.e., 4250-125R=2000+250R

Derives: r=6%.

Then substitute y=4250-125r, get: y=3500 There is a problem with the second question, it seems that nx=what is, and what is d in c=100+?

In fact, the first question will be done, and the second question is almost the same! Try it yourself!

Choose C Ha.

I see what you mean, to.

I also want to choose d before du, hehe. This is because we will be perfectly competitive in the market back imaginary answer.

It has become a specific industry similar to that in reality.

In fact, in the definition of perfect competition manufacturers, it is mentioned that the perfect competition market and manufacturers are ideal, its products are completely undifferent, the information is sufficient, there is no transaction cost, etc., and their operations are completely undifferent, except for the difference in scale.

Then there is no such thing as some manufacturers operating well and some operating badly, so there is no one who leaves and who stays, in fact, the test is the definition of a perfectly competitive manufacturer. Sweat it. I was also sweated to death, in addition, why can the balance of payments decide to keep the manufacturer?

Because of the perfect competition in the market, manufacturers are free to enter and exit. When there are fewer manufacturers, the output is insufficient, and the supply is less than the demand, then the product is greater than the marginal cost, the manufacturer has excess profits, and manufacturers in other industries will enter the market. Until there is no excess profit.

In addition, in the meaning of offset, there is no excess profit, but there is a normal profit, for example, the investor will still receive interest on the capital.

Solution: (1) Investment multiplier k = 1 1 - marginal propensity to consume = 1 1 - (2 points).

2) Increase in income = increase in investment k=80 5=40 billion yuan (2 points).

Increase in consumption = increase in income Marginal propensity to consume = 40 billion yuan (2 points).

Very simple question: k=1 (1-mpc).

The second pass: y= i*k, c= y*mpc

mpc = slope of the consumption function.

There are 4 strategies.

all build roads (4, 4). A repairs b does not repair (3, a does not repair b repairs (,3) does not repair (3,3).

Nash equilibrium is the middle two. In both equilibria, AB does not easily change its optimal strategy, if all other participants do not change their optimal strategy.