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The man's signature is no longer required, because the house is already owned by the woman and belongs to the woman's personal property, and the woman's signature is sufficient.
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After the divorce, the house is owned by the woman, as long as the divorce has a real estate agreement and states that the house belongs to the woman, now the man does not need to sign to sell the house.
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It depends on whose name the real estate certificate is, if it is jointly owned, you still need to take the judgment to the housing authority to change it before you can sell it yourself without the signature of the other party.
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There is no need for the man's signature, because the house is owned by the woman after the divorce and has nothing to do with the other party, so the man's signature is not required to sell the house.
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After the divorce, the house belongs to the woman, and now the man must not sign to sell the house, the premise is that before the sale of the house, after the divorce has been transferred to the woman's name, the woman is the owner of the house, otherwise you must sign, I hope it will help you.
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It should not be necessary, because the house is no longer joint property, as long as the woman agrees.
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It depends on whose name the title deed is.
If it is the woman's name, it is not necessary to sign the man's signature.
If the name of the man or the names of two people is required, the man must sign before the transaction can be made.
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Hello, this depends on whose name is on the real estate certificate, if it is the man's name, it should need to be signed by the man before you can sell the house.
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It depends on whose name the real estate certificate is, if it is his, it must be signed by him, otherwise the transfer procedures cannot be completed.
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It mainly depends on the name on the real estate certificate, if there is his name, he is still required to come. If not, forget it.
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Take the agreement to the notary office for notarization, and then take the agreement to the housing authority to change your name and surname, and then you can sell it yourself.
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If the husband and wife fail to reach an agreement through private negotiation, they need to divorce by agreement, and the divorce shall be handled through court mediation, according to the court's process. The court's judgment is justified and grounded, and the parties who are not satisfied with it can apply for an appeal. Regarding the court-mediated divorce, the house belongs to the woman, if the woman wants to sell the house, does the man still need to sign it?
I don't think the man's signature is required, mainly in the following aspects. First of all, since the house already belongs to the woman, the man has no right to intervene. As a citizen, trust in the impartiality of the court's decision.
Secondly, it is her choice how the woman disposes of the house, after all, she is the owner of the house, and her ex-husband has nothing to do with the house. In the end, it may be the best way for the woman to sell the house, the house that carries the memories of the husband and wife to continue to live is a kind of torture for the woman, and after selling it, she can buy a new house to face a better life, the woman's approach is understandable, as an ex-husband to support.
1: The woman is the property right of the house, and the owner's real estate certificate only has the woman's name.
Since the house already belongs to the woman, the man has no right to intervene. As a citizen, trust in the impartiality of the court's decision.
It is her choice how the woman disposes of the house, after all, she is the owner of the house, and her ex-husband has nothing to do with the house.
Three: Selling the house where the couple once lived means saying goodbye to the past, and the woman must have a new life.
It may be the best way for the woman to sell the house, the house that carries the memories of the husband and wife to continue to live is a kind of torture for the woman, and after selling it, she can buy a new house to face a better life, the woman's approach is understandable, and she should support her as an ex-husband.
Regarding the court-mediated divorce, the house belongs to the woman, if the woman wants to sell the house, does the man still need to sign it? If you have anything else you would like to add, please leave a message below the comment area. If you also agree with this article, remember to like and follow.
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If it has been determined that the house is owned by the woman, the man's signature is not required.
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Since the house has been awarded to the woman, she generally has complete control rights, so you don't need to tell the man if you sell it.
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No, because the ownership of the house is already owned by the woman, so the man's consent is not required when selling the house.
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If the divorce has been mediated at this time, the man's signature is not required when the woman sells the house. Because the house belongs to the woman, there is no need for the man's consent.
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Need. After the divorce of the husband and wife, the property belongs to one party, and the husband and wife should promptly bring the divorce certificate and divorce agreement (or the court's divorce judgment or divorce mediation letter), real estate certificate, household registration book and ID card of both parties to the housing authority to transfer the real estate certificate to the name of the holder after the divorce. If the house has been transferred to the name of one party, the other party does not need to be present to sign when the house is sold and transferred.
If the house has not been transferred to the name of the person who should hold the property after the divorce, the housing authority will require both parties to be present to sign the house when selling the house again. In this case, both parties can bring their real estate certificates, their respective ID cards, and divorce legal documents to the scene to go through the procedures for retail auctions. Notes:
1. If one party has obtained the property right certificate before marriage, because the current Civil Code stipulates that the property before marriage is always personal, and it will not be transformed into the joint property of the husband and wife because the marriage has reached the threshold of a chaotic year. 2. The house where you live after marriage is your parents' house or rented public house, and the judgment standard is based on the house ownership certificate, because in this case, the house is whose property is in whose name, so the house is not the joint property of the husband and wife at the time of divorce and cannot be divided3. If the full payment has been paid before marriage and the property ownership certificate can only be obtained after marriage, the property ownership is not defined by the date of obtaining the property ownership certificate, otherwise it is obviously unfair.
4. Mortgage purchase before marriage, has gone through the loan procedures, the purchase contract and the bank loan contract are signed in their own name, in this case, the house is personal property before marriage, but the part of the loan repaid after marriage is the joint property of the husband and wife, and half of the compensation should be compensated to the other party, it should be noted that half of the compensation is only the money for repaying the loan after marriage, which is limited to the principal and does not include the appreciation of the house.
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If the house has been divided and the change has been registered, the owner of the house does not need to sign the ex-spouse if the house is sold after the divorce.
According to the first paragraph of Article 490 of the Civil Code, which came into effect in 2021, if the parties conclude a contract in the form of a contract, the contract shall be established when both parties sign, affix their seals or press their fingerprints. The contract is formed when one of the parties has fulfilled the main obligation and the other party has accepted it before the signature, seal or fingerprint of the person who has signed it.
Article 1087 stipulates that in the event of divorce, the joint property of the husband and wife shall be disposed of by mutual agreement; If an agreement is not reached, the people's court shall make a judgment based on the specific circumstances of the property and in accordance with the principle of taking care of the rights and interests of the children, the woman, and the party who is not at fault.
The rights and interests enjoyed by husbands or wives in the contracting and management of family land shall be protected in accordance with law.
Article 490 of the Civil Code.
If the parties conclude a contract in the form of a written contract, the contract shall be formed when both parties sign, affix their seals or press their fingerprints. The contract is formed when one of the parties has fulfilled its primary obligations and the other party has accepted it before signing, stamping or fingerprinting.
Article 1087 of the Civil Code.
In the event of a divorce, the joint property of the husband and wife shall be disposed of by mutual agreement;
If an agreement is not reached, the people's court is to make a judgment based on the specific circumstances of the property and in accordance with the principle of taking care of the rights and interests of the children, the woman, and the innocent party.
The rights and interests enjoyed by husbands or wives in the contracting and management of family land shall be protected in accordance with law.
In the event of a divorce, the joint property of the husband and wife shall be disposed of by mutual agreement; If the agreement is not reached, the people's court shall make a judgment based on the specific circumstances of the property and the principle of taking care of the rights and interests of the children and the woman. >>>More
When the child becomes an adult, he or she can choose his or her own guardian.
In fact, for most couples now, when they divorce, one of the troublesome problems they face is how to distribute the joint property of the husband and wife, so at this time they will have contradictions because of some things, so some people will have such doubts, that is, after the divorce of the husband and wife, the house belongs to the man, or the custody also belongs to the man? So does the child have residency? For some problems, in my personal opinion, of course, there is, and the man also has the obligation to raise the child, let's learn more about it. >>>More
OK. In the event of a divorce, the parties may agree in the divorce agreement to transfer the property to the minor children, and the law does not prohibit this behavior. If the child is an adult, the property can be transferred directly to the child.
In practical terms. If there are exceptional circumstances and the tenant is not at home, but the landlord is doing it for safety, or for public safety. >>>More