Engineering economics assignments, engineering economics questions to solve

Interest is calculated once a month, and the annual effective interest rate is r=(1+10% 12) 12-1=

Loan principal = 2 (1+r) + 2 (1+r) 2+......2 (1+r) 10=2*(1-(1+r) (10)) r=10,000 yuan.

This topic was also quite troublesome when I learned it in the factory, you have to go up here to learn, and you can ask about the place where it is formed.

In fact, if you want to talk about the Miyagi topic, you can understand it according to some engineering projects.

Average life method: also known as the straight-line method, is a way to evenly allocate the depreciation amount of fixed assets to each period, and the depreciation amount accrued in each period is the same. Annual depreciation amount (book value of fixed assets, estimated net residual value) depreciation period (which can also be months).

50000-2800+2000) 5=9840 Double Declining Balance Method: The double declining balance method is a method of calculating the depreciation of fixed assets based on the net book value of fixed assets at the beginning of each period and the double straight-line depreciation rate without considering the residual value of fixed assets. When using the double declining balance method, it is important to pay attention to the average amortization of the net net book value of fixed assets after deducting the estimated net residual value when depreciation is accrued in the last two years.

Depreciation in the first year: 50,000 2 5 20,000 (yuan) Depreciation in the second year: (50,000-20,000) 2 5 12,000 (yuan) Depreciation in the third year:

50000-20000-12000 5 3600 (RMB) Depreciation in the fourth and fifth years: (50000-20000-12000-3600-2800+2000) 2 6800 (RMB) Sum of years method: Also known as the total value of the fixed assets, it is to multiply the net amount of the original value of the fixed assets minus the estimated net residual value by a decreasing fraction to calculate the annual depreciation amount, and the numerator of this score represents the number of years that the fixed assets can still be used. The denominator represents the year-over-year numerical sum of the years of use.

Depreciation in the first year: (50000-2800+2000) 5 (5+4+3+2+1) 16400 (yuan) Depreciation in the second year: (50000-2800+2000) 4 (5+4+3+2+1) ?

RMB) Depreciation in the third year: (50000-2800+2000) 3 (5+4+3+2+1) ?RMB) Depreciation in the fourth year:

50000-2800+2000)×2/(5+4+3+2+1)＝?RMB) Depreciation in the fifth year: (50000-2800+2000) 1 (5+4+3+2+1) ?Meta).

(1) Present value: p = -1000 (p f, 12%, 1) -1500 (p f, 12%, 2) + 200 (p f, 12%, 3) + 300 (p f, 12%, 4) + 400 (p f, 12%, 5) 500 (p a, 12%, 5) (p f, 12%, 5) + 450 (p f, 12%, 11) + 400 (p f, 12%, 12) + 350 (p f, 12%, 13) + 450 (p f, 12%, 14) -- check the compound interest coefficient table to solve.

2) Final value: you can change the coefficient, the method is the same (3) What is required for the third question is a little vague: personal understanding is to convert all cash flows to the end of the second year, that is, the required = -1000 (f p, 12%, 1) -1500 + 200 (p f, 12%, 1) + 300 (p f, 12%, 2) + 400 (p f, 12%, 3) 500 (p a, 12%, 3) (p f, 12%, 3) + 450 (p f, 12%, 12%, 9)+400(p f,12%,10)+350(p f,12%,11)+450(p f,12%,12)

Do the math yourself, and discuss it if the result is wrong.

Haha,You and I are in sympathy.,I also did this question.,The teacher also said.,The first answer is 290w.,The second is 320w.,The third is 302w.,The process is a little tangled.,I won't write it.。

Annual cost at A = 1200(A P, 10%, 60) + 2 + 5(A F, 10%, 10) - 5(A F, 10%, 60).

Annual cost at B = 1100(A P, 10%, 60) + 8 + 3(A F, 10%, 3) - 3(A F, 10%, 60) + 4(A F, 10%, 10) -4(A F, 10%, 60).

So choose Plan B.

Burning talks about overheated days, extra hot hot listen to ten thousand.

1. (1) Annualized interest: 10000 * [f p,8%,6] = 15870 (2) Quarterly interest: effective interest rate: (1+8% 4) 4-1=10000 * [f p,,6] =

2. Because the required years are different, you can use the annual value method of expenses to choose

A device: 12000-3800-8000 [A P] + 500 [A F] = 6454

Device B: 9800-2000-8000 [A P]=6368 A device should be selected.

(1) Average yield.

ap=l+12l

2 Marginal yield.

mp＝（tp）

＋12l＋12

2) Profit p

q－wl＝40（－

6l＋12l）－480l=－4l

240l480l－480l32

32 12L2 480L, when

0, l 0 (rounded) or.

l＝40。While.

l 40 o'clock

0, so. l＝40

time, profit. Utmost.

At this point, the yield.

q＝＋6×40

If the answer is satisfactory, don't forget to take it.