Please help solve this financial management problem, thank you. A good solution plus 50

The first question: compared with the first, the common advantages of the common * mainly have four points: 1. Professional operation management.

The company employs professional managers and research teams to conduct market research, and has an in-depth understanding of the overall and individual investment environment at home and abroad, as well as the situation of individual companies. Moreover, as long as you spend a small ** management fee, you can enjoy the services of experts, which can be said to be the best gospel for small investors. On the other hand, the direct purchase of the company** may lead to investment errors due to limited personal capabilities or information asymmetry2

Diversification of investment risk The common ** assets are larger than the general investor, and they can be scientifically combined within the scope of the law by virtue of their concentrated huge funds, and the funds can be dispersed in different ** or even different investment tools to achieve real risk diversification, without causing significant losses due to a wrong stock selection. The investment company **, due to the limited personal funds, cannot diversify the risk through the asset portfolio, so the company ** is more risky. 3.

High level of security. Common ** is the principle of separating custody and operation. In the unfortunate event of the failure of the company or custodian bank, the creditor shall not request the seizure of the assets or exercise other rights against the assets, and the rights and interests of the investors will not be affected.

In the case of investment companies, if the company goes bankrupt, there is not much to be distributed through the remaining assets4Quite flexible in terms of monetization. When investors do not want to invest, they can opt out at any time, and the payment for the redemption of domestic bonds** can be received on the next business day after the redemption application, and the payment can be received in about one week for domestic ** and overseas**.

Unlike other investment vehicles, there is a risk that they will not be sold. 5.A small amount of money can be invested globally.

Common** is the diversification of investments across different targets, or even different financial markets (regions, countries). Investors can share the fruits of economic growth in various regions of the world as little as 3,000 yuan (regular quota). Compared with other investment vehicles, the investment floor is much smaller.

Crazy, the person who made the question is crazy.

This question is a CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model), and students can review the formula of the CAPM model.

First of all, the CAPM model formula is: E(Ri)=RF+ IM(E(RM)-RF).

E(RI) is the expected rate of return, RF is the risk-free rate of return, is the beta of **, and E(RM) is the yield of the market portfolio.

So let's look at this question:

1) For, the interest rate of treasury bills is the risk-free rate of return, and the average rate of return of the market is the rate of return of the market portfolio.

2) Also substitute the formula, 16%=8%+15%-8%), and calculate Biqiao.

Select :b:. Leverage coefficient of Caidong Broadening: DFL EBIT (EBIT-I) EBIT (EBIT-I) = 600 (600-105) = EBIT = Marginal Contribution - Fixed Cost = 6 Million Yuan EBIT = M-A

where: EBIT is EBIT; a is a fixed cost. Therefore, the operating leverage factor = the rate of change in EBIT and the rate of change in the volume of production and sales.

Contribution margin EBIT = 150 100=

The role of operating leverage:

Under the condition that other factors remain unchanged, the existence of fixed production and operation costs leads to the operating leverage of enterprises, and the higher the fixed costs, the greater the operating leverage coefficient and the greater the operating risk.

If the fixed costs are zero, the operating leverage factor is equal to 1. Typically, the operating leverage factor is greater than 1

The total capital is $2 million, the debt-to-capital ratio is 30, and the interest rate is 15. Derived:

Interest = 5000 * 30% * 7% = 1.05 million yuan Financial Shed Leverage Coefficient: DFL EBIT (EBIT-I) EBIT (EBIT-I).

600 (600-105)==,9, please help me solve this financial management problem.

Company E's total long-term capital is 50 million yuan, the debt-to-capital ratio is 7% per annum, and the corporate income tax rate is 25%. When the EBIT is 6 million yuan and the after-tax profit is 3 million yuan, the financial leverage factor is () d

Brainstorming, one answer 600 (600-5000* one answer dfl=ebit ebit-i=m-f m-f-i profit after tax=(ebit-i)*75=300 ebit-i=400 600 400= Both formulas are correct, I don't know if ** is wrong, and you can't find the trouble from **, what is your answer??

Question 2. 1) Scheme A Depreciation 30000 5 = 6000NCF0 = -30000

ncf1-5=（15000-5000-6000）×（1-40％）+6000=8400

2) Depreciation (36000-4000) Dust cleaning 5 = 6400ncf0 = -36000-3000 = -39000ncf1 = (17000-6000-6400) (1-40) + 6400 = 9160

The formula for calculating each year is similar, but the cash cost is different.

ncf2=8980

ncf3=8800

ncf4=8620

NCF5 = 15440 (last year plus recovery of operating costs and salvage value of the sale of the brother) 2) A plan = 30000 8400 = year.

Scheme b = (5-1) + 440 15440 = years.

3) A scheme = 8400 * (p a, 5, 10) - 30000 = 1836b scheme = 9160 * (p f, 1, 10) + 8980 * (p f, 2, 10) + 8800 * (p f, 3, 10) + 8620 * (p f, 4, 10) + 15440 * (p f, 5, 10) - 36000 =

4) To sum up, choose plan A, the net present value is large, and the ** period is short.

Solution: From sales revenue = (profit + total fixed costs + total variable costs), pq = (profit + a + b * q).

1) Unit price p = (0 + 2000 + 1000 6) 1000 = 8 (yuan) (2) target unit variable cost = unit price - (fixed cost + target profit) sales volume = 10 - (2000 + 3000) 1000 = 5 (yuan) that is, to achieve the goal of profit of 3000 yuan, the unit variable cost should be reduced to 5 yuan.

3) After the implementation of the plan, sales volume = 1000 (1 + 50%) = 1500 (pieces) fixed cost = 2000 + 1500 = 3500 (yuan) profit = sales volume (unit price - unit variable cost) - fixed cost = 1500 (10-6) - 3500 = 2500 and the original profit = 1000 (10-6) - 2000 = 2000 (yuan), that is, the implementation of the plan can increase the profit of 500 yuan (2500-2000), Therefore, the plan is feasible.

1. Simple interest = 1000 * (1 + 5 * 5%) = 1250 yuan; Compound interest = 1000 times (1+5%) to the 5th power = yuan.

2、=50/[p/a，5，5%]

5. (ebit-90)*(1-25%) 7800=(ebit-90-1500*90 1000)*(1-25%) 7500, find the EBIT of 36 million yuan, and the after-tax profit per share of ordinary shares without difference point; The after-tax profit per share of 3,000,000 ordinary shares was RMB, and the after-tax profit per share of ordinary shares was RMB, so the method of increasing debt financing was chosen.