Finding the ratio of math masters to the good plus 20 points 20

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Hello! 4/5: 8/15 = 3/2 5/8: 2=5/16 15:25 = 3/5 5/12: 10/9 = 3/8

3/8: 4/9 = 27/32 9/10: 14 = 95/140: 9 = 5/9 5/12: 20 = 1/15/48

The answer is absolutely accurate!

Note: The ratio is the value obtained by dividing the previous term of the ratio by the subsequent term of the ratio.

I hope the above answers can solve your doubts, thank you!

4/5:8/15 = 3:2

5/8:2 = 5:16

5/12:10/9 = 3:8:

1: 3/18: 4/9 = 27:

32 9:14 out of 10 = 9:140 5:

9=5:9 should be 6:9 (6:

9 = 2:3) 5 out of 12: 20 = 1:

4/5: 8/15 = 3:2 5/8: 2 = 5:16 15:25 = 3:5:1

5/12: 10/9 = 3:8:1:1

3/8: 4/9 = 27:32 9/10: 14 = 9:140 5:9= (I don't know why you asked this question, this is the simplest) 5/12: 20 = 1:48

4/5: 8/15 = 3/2

5/8: 2 = 4/5

15:25 = 3/5

5/12: 10/9 = 3/8

3/8: 4/9 = 27/32

9/10: 14 = 9/140

5: 9 = 5 out of 9

5/12: 20 = 1/48

15 out of 15

5/316/2

36/5 is 6/1

340/8 is 40/1

2, that's 2/1

27/32

9 out of 140

1 in 9 in 548

15 out of 4

6 40 2 27/32 9/140 5/9 1/48 15/4

Think of it as a division.

Divide the previous term of the calculator ratio by the latter term of the ratio to equal the ratio.

b of a: d of c = (a times d) (b times c) and then simplified.

How do you know that the upstairs is square, and the pool should be rectangular.

Since it is a phalanx, then it is advisable to set this phalanx to be a phalanx of m*n, and the phalanx of (m-8) (n-8) is dug out in the middle.

The innermost layer is:

m-6)(n-6)-(m-8)(n-8)=64, then there is m+n=46

The outermost layer is:

mn-(m-2)(n-2)=2(m+n)-4=88 in total. mn-(m-8)(n-8)=8(m+n)-64=304

Each time you add a middle layer, the number of willows on each side increases by 2.

There are willows on each side of the innermost layer: 64 4 + 1 = 17.

So there are willows on each side of the outermost layer: 17 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 23.

There are willows in the outermost layer: (23-1) 4=88.

The penultimate layer has 17 + 2 = 19 trees on each side.

The penultimate layer has willows: (19-1) 4=72.

The penultimate layer has trees on each side: 19 + 2 = 21 trees.

The penultimate layer has willows: (21-1) 4=80.

There are a total of willow trees in the phalanx: 64 + 72 + 80 + 88 = 304 trees.

1. Simplification to 4x 2-x+5 first

The value brought in x is 4*

2. Simplify to A+B 3

Bring in the values of x and y 1+(-3) 3=-26

3. Simplified to -(a-b) 2-4(a-b).

The value brought in a-b is -4-4*2=-12

|1 1 1 ..1 |

a1 a2 a3 ..an |

a1^2 a2^2 a3^a ..an^2|

.= da1^(n-1) a2^(n-1) a3^(n-1) .an^(n-1)|

Such a determinant is the Vandermond determinant, and the result is: ii(ai-aj).

1<=j ('<=' means less than or equal to, 'ii' means multiplication).

Also, the sufficient necessary conditions for Vandermund's determinant to be zero are a1, a2, a3....n, n numbers, at least two equal

Let the general term of the Fibonacci sequence be an.

In fact an = (p n - q n) 5, where p = ( 5 - 1) 2, q = ( 5 + 1) 2. But it is not necessary to solve it here)

Then write SN = A1 + A2 + AN

Since an = sn - s(n-1) = a(n-1) +a(n-2) = s(n-1) -s(n-2) +s(n-2) -s(n-3).

s(n-1) -s(n-3)

The initial values are s1 = 1, s2 = 2, and s3 = 4.

So sn - 2s(n-1) +s(n-3) = 0

Thus its characteristic equation is.

x^3 - 2x^2 + 1 = 0

i.e. (x - 1)(x 2 - x - 1) = 0

It is not difficult to solve this cubic equation.

x1 = 1

x2 = p

x3 = q

p, q values are the same as p, q in an).

So the general solution is.

sn = c1 * x1^n + c2 * x2^n + c3 * x3^n

The values of C1, C2 and C3 are determined by substituting the three initial values of S1, S2 and S3 into the above equation. I won't forget it.

It would be nice to look at the symmetry directly (4,2200) as the apex, then 4-2 2 distances. 4-6 is also for two distances, ordinates, phases, groups, keys, etc.

Or let the analytic formula be y=a(x-4) collapse Zheng +2200

The number with an absolute value of 9 4 is 9 4

The smallest absolute value is 0

The largest negative integer is -1

The smallest positive number is None

If the absolute value of a number is equal to the opposite of the number, then the number is 0 The distance between the corresponding point of a number on the number line and the corresponding point of its opposite number on the number line is 2 1 units, then the number is 1

No, you can still ask me again, hopefully, o(o thank you!)

...Passing by: That's the basic concept.