Two math verifications 20 added .

Updated on educate 2024-04-07
7 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    Evidence: 1) Write dbc= , dcb= , have the sum of the inner angles of the triangle to be 180°, + d=180°

    2α+2β+∠a=180°

    Synthesis, i.e., d=90°+1 2 a 2) mark abc= , acb= , cbf= , bcf= , with the sum of the inner angles of the triangle is 180°, +f=180°

    +a=180°

    And the flat angle is 180 °, there is.

    Combining these four formulas, we get f=90°-1 2 a

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    Solution: (1) 2 3 x 4 0

    2/3 x=4

    x=-63x+a=0

    3x=-ax=-a/3

    a/3-(-6)=2

    a/3+6=2

    a/3=-4

    a=122)∵|a-3|0, (b 1) 0 again: |a-3|+(b-1)²=0

    a-3=0 a=3

    b-1=0 b=1

    From the inscription: (2b a m) 2 (b 2a m) 1(2 3 m) 2 (1 6 m) 1

    m+1)/2=7/6

    m=-10/3

    3)①3kx-6=(k+3)x

    3k-k-3)x=6

    2k-3)x=6

    x=6/(2k-3)

    The solution of this equation is a positive integer, and (2k 3) must be a positive factor of 6, which can only be .

    2k-3=1 k=2

    2k-3=2 k=

    2k-3=3 k=3

    2k-3=6 k=

    Again: k is also a positive integer, k 2 or k 3

    When k 2, x 6

    When k 3, x 2

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    |1 1 1 ..1 |

    a1 a2 a3 ..an |

    a1^2 a2^2 a3^a ..an^2|

    .= da1^(n-1) a2^(n-1) a3^(n-1) .an^(n-1)|

    Such a determinant is the Vandermond determinant, and the result is: ii(ai-aj).

    1<=j ('<=' means less than or equal to, 'ii' means multiplication).

    Also, the sufficient necessary conditions for Vandermund's determinant to be zero are a1, a2, a3....n, n numbers, at least two equal

    Let the general term of the Fibonacci sequence be an.

    In fact an = (p n - q n) 5, where p = ( 5 - 1) 2, q = ( 5 + 1) 2. But it is not necessary to solve it here)

    Then write SN = A1 + A2 + AN

    Since an = sn - s(n-1) = a(n-1) +a(n-2) = s(n-1) -s(n-2) +s(n-2) -s(n-3).

    s(n-1) -s(n-3)

    The initial values are s1 = 1, s2 = 2, and s3 = 4.

    So sn - 2s(n-1) +s(n-3) = 0

    Thus its characteristic equation is.

    x^3 - 2x^2 + 1 = 0

    i.e. (x - 1)(x 2 - x - 1) = 0

    It is not difficult to solve this cubic equation.

    x1 = 1

    x2 = p

    x3 = q

    p, q values are the same as p, q in an).

    So the general solution is.

    sn = c1 * x1^n + c2 * x2^n + c3 * x3^n

    The values of C1, C2 and C3 are determined by substituting the three initial values of S1, S2 and S3 into the above equation. I won't forget it.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    How do you know that the upstairs is square, and the pool should be rectangular.

    Since it is a phalanx, then it is advisable to set this phalanx to be a phalanx of m*n, and the phalanx of (m-8) (n-8) is dug out in the middle.

    The innermost layer is:

    m-6)(n-6)-(m-8)(n-8)=64, then there is m+n=46

    The outermost layer is:

    mn-(m-2)(n-2)=2(m+n)-4=88 in total. mn-(m-8)(n-8)=8(m+n)-64=304

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    Each time you add a middle layer, the number of willows on each side increases by 2.

    There are willows on each side of the innermost layer: 64 4 + 1 = 17.

    So there are willows on each side of the outermost layer: 17 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 23.

    There are willows in the outermost layer: (23-1) 4=88.

    The penultimate layer has 17 + 2 = 19 trees on each side.

    The penultimate layer has willows: (19-1) 4=72.

    The penultimate layer has trees on each side: 19 + 2 = 21 trees.

    The penultimate layer has willows: (21-1) 4=80.

    There are a total of willow trees in the phalanx: 64 + 72 + 80 + 88 = 304 trees.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    The triangular ADM area is 1 4 of the parallelogram area, the trapezoidal BMCD area is 3 4, the triangle DEM area is 2 times the BEM area, the triangle CDE area is 4 times the triangle BEM area, and the shaded area is 1 3

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    m is the midpoint of ab.

    BM is 1 to 2 than CD, while triangle MBE is similar to triangle CDE De ratio to BE=2 to 1

    And the triangle cdb=

    Triangle ceb = 1 6

    Area of the shaded part = 1 3

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