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Personally, I don't think that's the only reason.
First of all, except for Germany and Italy. Let's take a look at the Britain, Spain and other countries mentioned above, these countries have a common feature, that is, they are all coastal countries, and their access to the sea is not like China, Russia and other countries, and their access to the sea has no restrictions, so after various countries realized this problem, they also frantically developed their navies, which made great progress in the navigation field of the whole world, which is the pillar of their expansion. Germany is still left, although it is said to be a Central European country, but still through land operations and various developments, it finally got its own small piece of the pie.
Another reason is that the scientific and technological level of these countries at that time was completely ahead of the world average, so with the support of these advanced **, these old capitalist powers acquired large colonies at a very small cost.
As for the reason for the expansion, as mentioned upstairs, science needs money to develop, and of course money is obtained from the weak! The same is true for the raw materials for the development of science and technology, because the local resources in Europe are insufficient and there is not a large enough market, so of course it is necessary to open up overseas markets through colonial expansion to win the maximum profit for ......the country
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The Industrial Revolution they needed raw materials and dumping grounds.
The pillar is the support of the capitalists in power.
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The development of these countries required a large amount of labor and raw materials, which was the main reason for their colonization. 、
Advanced industrial technology ahead of other countries as well as advanced navigation technology of a strong navy. And, of course, the political support of the rulers of the country and the economic support of the capitalists.
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Why not look at the rise of great powers and the opening of new shipping routes? I'm not professional enough, hehe.
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Fundamentally it is for the capital and commodities of Western countries to find new dumping markets and earn more gold and silver, which is driven by the nature of capital, and at that time China was a country full of gold and silver in the eyes of Westerners, but the Qing ** closed the country and did not allow their goods and funds to enter, so they used force to force China to open its market, invade China and control China's economy.
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The seclusion of the Qing Dynasty made China's science and technology, equipment, and production technology backward.
If you fall behind, you will be beaten!
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Because China's GDP at that time was several times to dozens of times that of theirs.
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During the Ming Dynasty, the Portuguese seized the right of residence in our country Macao by deception, which should not be considered a formal invasion.
At the end of the Ming Dynasty, the Dutch colonists invaded and occupied Taiwan, and carried out 38 years of colonial rule over Taiwan. At this time, the Netherlands was already a capitalist country.
Britain was the first to invade China in modern times, and in 1840 Britain launched the Opium War to invade China. The Opium War was the beginning of modern Chinese history.
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The Netherlands, the country with the most advanced seafaring technology at that time, was able to reach and invade our country.
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It was the Dutch, the sea coachman, who invaded Taiwan.
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Portugal (Macao, Guangdong, China).
Officially it should be the Netherlands!
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Netherlands! The first to invade Taiwan, China! Later, Zheng Chenggong recovered!
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Japan is not a Western country, it should be Portugal.
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It should be the Netherlands, which once invaded and occupied China's Taiwan.
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Japanese ,,, Wako!! The beginning of the Ming Dynasty!
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From the perspective of modern China, the answer is Britain.
The Netherlands was able to meet both of these conditions: it was both the first country to invade China and the capitalist country of the West.
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Britain, France, Spain, Portugal, Germany and other more developed countries have overseas colonies. Small countries like Belgium must not have them.
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Switzerland is a permanent neutral country.
The above is wrong. Belgium had colonies in Africa.
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Almost all Western European countries have colonies (of course, they must be seaside and independent, Ireland was historically colonized by the British, so there were no colonies).
Such as: Britain – too many. North America, the Caribbean, South Africa, India, Southeast Asia, ......Netherlands – Indonesia, the Caribbean, Africa as well.
Belgium – Zaire (DRC) in Africa
France – Caribbean, West Africa, coastal India.
Germany – Southwest Africa, Tanzania, Pacific Islands.
Denmark – Danish Velking Islands.
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Luxembourg, Belgium, Poland, etc.
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The first form of European aggression is ** aggression, then territorial colonial aggression, and then capital aggression, and now there is a trend of cultural aggression but it is too obvious. The reason is that the Crusades and the rise of Arabia broadened Europe's horizons, and at the same time, the military expeditions that cost life and money weakened the clerical rule and the friction provoked the friction between the feudal lords and the clerical rule, the feudal lords and the Reformation made Europe better understand the world, advanced production technology was introduced to the European continent from China through the Arabs, and European handicrafts and agricultural productivity were developed. And then the by-product market gradually enriched, and the demand for currency circulation increased, so the Europeans opened a channel to bypass the Arabs to develop their own **, through deceptive inequality** through some low-quality products and reselling to obtain *** and spices and other in-demand goods.
The era of capital handicraft industry was followed by the development of commerce, and the demand of the European market changed from the first and consumer goods to natural resources, so the fatal plundering of resources was popular, and the capital investment cycle after entering the era of industrialization emphasized rapid returns, and the proximity of industrial raw materials and the opening up of new markets became the way for universities to make profits, so Europe rose to develop the colonial market and then direct export of capital. Through the two world wars, Europe's military superiority is not there, but it still sets off waves of self-interest disputes against many developing countries through its developed financial system and industrial technology, which is also a continuation of the aggression of capital export. Finally, through the Libyan war, it can be seen that Europe has a developed economy and a splendid culture, they combine classical and modern, democracy and tradition, and their influence on the world in terms of culture and politics is no less than that of the United States.
It is necessary to face up to and be vigilant against today's cultural aggression, because swords and guns cannot make a nation bow its head, but culture will make a nation be assimilated. This requires us to look at and use it dialectically, to extract its essence from its dross, to take me as the main thing, and to use it for me!
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In the second industrial revolution, productivity increased, and Europe shifted from the export of goods to the export of capital to its colonial and semi-colonial countries. Originally, the goods of the country were produced and sold in other countries, but later they were directly produced in other countries, and the labor and resources of other countries were used to sell them directly in other countries, so that transportation costs were reduced, environmental pollution was gone, and profits were increased.
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Do you mean economic aggression, and if so, from the export of goods to the export of capital.
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At the end of the 15th century, with the discovery of the New World of America and the opening of new shipping routes to the East, some Western European countries that had entered the stage of primitive capital accumulation were carrying out colonial expansion to the East.
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