On the issue of public property before and after the marriage of the real estate certificate!

Updated on society 2024-06-23
13 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-12

    1. Please go to the housing management department immediately, if you can't handle it immediately to see what materials are missing, it is best to make up before marriage (especially the purchase contract and invoice)!

    2. If you look for 1 article, the house right certificate will appear before the date of marriage, which is a pre-marital property (for a longer period of time), so there is no need to worry!

    3. If you are still not at ease, go to the notary department to handle the pre-marital property registration!

    Do it with a strip or 3, and you're good to go!

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-11

    If you buy a house with a lump sum payment before marriage, you should collect the purchase contract, invoices and other relevant materials, and first go to the judicial notarization of personal premarital property before marriage, so as to obtain legal protection and avoid unnecessary disputes in the future.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-10

    It is recommended to do property notarization, which is more assured.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    As long as the date of the purchase invoice or the payment of the deed tax precedes the date of marriage registration, it can be recognized as premarital property.

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    If you are sure that the property you are buying was purchased before you got married, it is your pre-marital property. At the same time, there is only your name on the real estate certificate, and do not write the names of two people. Otherwise it's shared.

    Article 18 of the Marriage Law stipulates that: "In any of the following circumstances, it shall be the property of one of the spouses: (1) the property of one of the spouses before marriage; (2) Medical expenses, living allowances for persons with disabilities, and other expenses received by one side as a result of bodily injury; (3) In the will or gift contract, it is determined that the property belongs to only one of the husband or wife; (4) Daily necessities for the exclusive use of one side; (5) Other property that shall belong to one party.

    In addition, Article 19 of the Interpretation (I) of the Supreme People's Court on Several Issues Concerning the Application of the Marriage Law stipulates that: "The property owned by one of the husband and wife as stipulated in Article 18 of the Marriage Law shall not be converted into the joint property of the husband and wife due to the continuation of the marital relationship. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties. ”

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    As long as the agreement is written down through voluntary negotiation between the two parties, the signature of both parties is valid, but it is best to do a notarization, which is relatively more legally effective.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    If your husband's name is written on the real estate certificate, it is shared by the two of you. However, it can be agreed that in the event of a divorce, the property will be owned by you, and the signature of both parties will be valid. Notarization is more effective.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    You can draft a certificate that the house belongs to you, and then notarize it at a notary office, and the relevant signatures and the number of copies can be handled according to the notary law.

  9. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    This is not considered a notarization of premarital property, because the names of the two people are clearly written on the real estate certificate, and if the notary says that the property is owned by you, the two are contradictory; Both parties can sign an agreement that stipulates that in the event of a divorce, your husband agrees that the property is yours. The agreement can be signed by both parties, of course, if you want to sign it in front of a notary public out of prudence, but the effect of the agreement will not be different from notarization, but it will be stronger as evidence, especially if one party denies signing the agreement.

  10. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    In this way, according to the new marriage law and judicial interpretations, the purchase of a house before marriage belongs to an individual, and the part of joint loan repayment after marriage should be appropriately compensated to the other party. Now your matrimonial home is his personal pre-marital property.

    Personally, I think that you use different standards for treating the marital house and your own house, and it is recommended that you maintain the status quo, so that your property is naturally your own and the marital house is his, which is better. Because you can protect your rights and interests without notarization, there is nothing unclear about property rights, yours is yours, his is his. However, if you file for notarization, and the other party also makes a claim for your personal property, your double standard may cause greater unhappiness.

    Again, marriage is an emotional matter, property division, according to the law, only the design of divorce property division or special requirements of the parties will be, so it is in the best interests of both of you to manage the marriage well instead of causing trouble!

  11. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    The record of the transfer you give him must be kept.

  12. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    1. It can be agreed in the form of an agreement as the joint property of the husband and wife, 2If it is a pre-marital personal property, it belongs to the individual and will not be divided. 3. If the car was designated by your father as a gift to you personally, it belongs to your personal property.

  13. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    1. The house bought before marriage is only registered in his name and belongs to his personal property before marriage.

    2. No matter who pays, if you add your name, the house belongs to your husband and wife, and you own half of the share. If both parties are not at fault, after the divorce, it will be one and a half.

    3. The marital property agreement may stipulate whether the marital property is jointly owned or owned by an individual, and the method of disposing of the divorced property may also be agreed. However, if the divorce is due to a situation where one of the parties is at fault or needs to be taken care of, it will not be divided equally as agreed.

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