The house agreement does not specify the gift of home appliances, but if the buyer takes a photo, ca

Of course, you can, because although the other party took pictures, as long as you don't reach an agreement or the agreement doesn't include home appliances, the home appliances must still be the owner's, and it is impossible to become a buyer. If taking a picture counts, then it would be unreasonable if even people were involved. Therefore, as long as it is not stated in the agreement, it can be determined that it does not exist.

If the home appliance is not written on the house agreement, it means that the home appliance is still the owner's. Even if he took pictures of the situation at home, there was no legal basis.

If there is no written agreement, verbal promise or implication that the home appliances are transferred with the house when negotiating the sale and purchase of the house, the buyer does not put forward the relevant requirements for the home appliances. Because the appliance is not a facility within the scope of immovable property, the seller can take the appliance away.

A written agreement should be signed for the purchase and sale of a home. The content includes: **person's name, ID number, house location, community name, building number, floor, area, house building structure, house**, tax payment, etc.; Buyer's name and ID number; You can also indicate the items and quantity donated with the room.

Both parties must sign and press their fingerprints to confirm the validity.

The agreement for the sale and purchase of a house is best signed by the local fair office or through an intermediary company, and the law supports it. It is difficult to solve the residual problems in the future to avoid them.

As long as the house sale and purchase agreement does not specify the gifted furniture and appliances, you can take them.

The seller cannot reneceit.

According to the relevant judicial interpretations of the Supreme People's Court, if the parties agree to pay a deposit as security for the conclusion of the main contract, if the party who paid the deposit refuses to conclude the main contract, it has no right to demand the return of the deposit; If the party receiving the deposit refuses to conclude the contract, it shall return double the deposit.

I think it is possible to return the deposit with regret. After all, there is no agreement contract between the parties. It's just a receipt from the buyer. And the seller did not confirm it.

Because there is no contract, only a receipt, look at how the receipt is written, if there is no special agreement or indication, then as a seller, there is nothing to be bound by, and you can completely return the deposit and destroy the oral agreement!

Yes, then it needs to be negotiated by both parties.

Integrity-based.

Question: The buyer paid a deposit of 20,000 yuan to the seller, and the deposit slip stated that double the deposit should be compensated if the contract is breached. Now that the seller doesn't want to sell, is there any liability other than paying the buyer double the deposit?

If the buyer asks for the price difference, agency fee, etc., does the seller need to bear it? Supplements: 1

On the day of signing the agreement, the buyer paid a total of 30,000 intermediary fees to the intermediary (this intermediary fee includes all the fees involved in the intermediary, such as ** loan, handling the transfer, etc.), but in fact, the work involving the intermediary is only for the buyer and seller to sign the sales contract, and nothing else has been done. 2.When the seller signed the sales contract, he did not bring his ID card with him, but only signed his name on the agreement and wrote down his ID number.

Because the seller repented the day after signing the agreement, when the agent asked the seller to provide the original and copy of the owner's ID card, he never provided it. The agent is worried that the seller will resell the house to someone else, so he tells the seller that your house has been registered online in the stock housing trading center, and you can't sell it to others. Is there any basis for this statement?

In the absence of the original and copy of the homeowner's ID card, can they sign and publicize it online only through the signed sales contract? 3.The ID number signed by the owner on the second-hand house sales contract is also different from the ID number left when purchasing the commercial house before.

Because the homeowner used the ID card he used when he was studying in school when he bought the house, but after joining the work, the household registration was transferred and the second-generation ID card was used, and the ID number also changed. Does this clause help the seller to apply for the invalidity of the contract? Answer:

If the buyer commits contract fraud, the seller may request confirmation that the contract is invalid in accordance with the provisions of the Contract Law and does not need to pay liquidated damages.

There is no right to refuse to sell a house.

If the contract does not stipulate, the seller is obliged to provide an invoice, which is a legal obligation and cannot be refused, otherwise, it is a breach of contract.

It was stated in the contract that the invoice was not included, and the buyer asked the seller to produce the invoice. Does the seller have the right to refuse? Since the contract states that the invoice is not included, the seller has the right to refuse.

In this case, the buyer and the seller should negotiate to deal with it, because the buyer is the buyer's personal reason that the loan cannot be approved, then the buyer is in breach of contract, in this case, the contract can only be terminated after paying a commission.

According to your description, for a second-hand house, the buyer does not approve the loan for personal reasons and asks for a lump sum payment, and the seller wants to terminate the contract, is it okay? As a bystander, the sale of the house must be voluntary, because the contract has been signed, but the loan cannot be approved due to the buyer's reasons, resulting in a lump sum payment, which is the buyer's responsibility, and has nothing to do with the seller, that is to say, the buyer has a breach of contract, then the seller can propose to terminate the contract, because according to the contract the buyer can not make a one-time payment, then the seller can be in accordance with the contract breach of contract to terminate the contract. Think for yourself, young man.

If the buyer of a second-hand house refuses to approve the loan for personal reasons and asks for a lump sum payment, can the other party want to terminate the contract? Answer: Second-hand housing, the loan is not approved for personal reasons, and a one-time payment is required.

The seller wants to terminate the contract, which is of course possible. As long as the payment has not been completed, and all the procedures are not finalized, the seller can do whatever he wants. The buyer has already violated the law, and he told you the first time and the second time, and the approach is different.

And if you buy or sell something, you can bargain with other people, and you can sell it or not.

This situation should not work, the seller does not have the right to require a loan, is there an agreement in the contract?

An oral agreement is legally valid if it is proved by a third party who has no interested party. As long as the contract does not stipulate that the seller sells the air conditioner to the buyer, the buyer has no reason.

The law does not stipulate that it is generally negotiated between the two parties, and if there is an oral agreement, the buyer's request is unreasonable.

Can be sued! But the case will be lost!! The Contract Law clearly stipulates that the information on the contract is inconsistent with the reality!

The contract is null and void! Or rather! He said you broke the contract??

You ask him what covenant he has broken? You can give him money! Let him give you the house with the address and age clearly written on the contract!

Did he give it?? You gave the money! He can't give the house!

Is he in breach of contract???

Contract law stipulates that the content of the contract must be consistent with the reality! A year away is also a deception! Think so!

The contract is clearly written! For example, you spend 200,000 yuan to buy a house that is 80 years old! Locations are also available!

All right! Ask him to give you this suite! The house in the same location is 82 years old!

Not 80 years! It's obvious that it's the other party who has defaulted!

According to what you said, if the contract says that the buyer can not buy, the seller can not sell. In fact, it is a special agreement between the parties that one party alone has the right to terminate the contract. Because Article 93 of the Contract Law stipulates that "the parties may terminate the contract if they reach a consensus through consultation."

The parties may agree on the conditions under which one party may terminate the contract. If the conditions for rescission are fulfilled, the person with the right to terminate the contract may terminate the contract. Therefore, the agreement that one of your parties has the right not to buy or sell does not violate the provisions of the Contract Law and should be a valid clause.

You can unilaterally terminate the contract for the sale and purchase of a house. If there is an agreement in the contract on the liquidated damages for terminating the contract, it can be executed according to the agreement.

There is a legal basis for the buyer to sue the court to demand that you perform the contract. Although the contract states that the buyer may not buy and the seller may not sell, its legal effect is limited in time. After the contract is signed, both parties can terminate the contract at any time without liability to each other; Once the buyer asks you for an advance payment and makes an offer, and you agree to it and receive it, you can be deemed to have made a commitment to the offer and should fulfill the promise; If you don't want to sell the house now and are willing to pay liquidated damages, it is recommended that you declare to the judge at the trial and defense on the grounds that the advance payment paid by the other party is less than 30% of the house price, and this money should be a deposit rather than the house payment, and the judge will only award you liquidated damages, so that you can keep the house.

What does it mean that the contract states that the buyer can not buy and the seller can not sell?

If there is a special agreement in the contract, you can rest assured that he will sue him.

It's the same as the landlord's situation, how did it end up decided?