Urgent Help for Marriage and Property, Matrimonial Property Issues, Urgent!

You can also apply for a password for online banking, and two people can operate a corporate account at the same time.

1. Before marriage, the individual buys the house in full and gets the real estate certificate.

2. Accept the gift or inheritance of real estate before marriage, and transfer the property rights to their own name.

3. Notarized or evidenced pre-marital assets to purchase a house.

4. If you have a joint property to repay the house purchased with a loan before marriage, you can make corresponding financial compensation to the woman when you divorce, and the house belongs to you.

5. In principle, the house purchased after marriage is divided equally between the two people, and if you want, you can also get the house by giving the other party financial compensation, but in this case, it is more likely to be given to the woman.

6. The house and property donated or inherited by the husband are only given to the man and not the family, as long as it is not clearly stated, they are all joint property of the husband and wife, and once divorced, the woman has 1 2 ownership of it.

The law is very clear about this.

If the husband buys it before marriage, it belongs to his personal property and cannot be divided in the event of divorce;

If the husband buys the property before marriage and has a mortgage loan, the post-marital contributions are the joint property of the husband and wife, and the woman may request the division of the post-marital contributions.

1. Be fair to personal property before marriage. 2. Withdraw money to buy real estate before marriage. 3. Although there is a loan, but the agreement is the personal property of one party, and one party repays the loan independently, it is recommended that this agreement be fair.

4. Accept the gift after marriage, but the gift agreement indicates that it is only given to one party. The above can be considered personal property.

1. Buy before marriage.

2. Or after marriage, it is purchased with pre-marriage savings.

According to the statement that "the name of the house is the name of A and the name of the original partner B", assuming that "the wife does not want anything" (oral agreement) is valid, then the house belongs to the personal property of man A - even if man A remarries his subsequent wife, it is still the pre-marital property of male A and has nothing to do with his subsequent wife; If the disposition of the house in the property does not take effect when Male A and his ex-wife divorce, the house is the joint property of Male A and Female B, and needs to be disposed of and transferred to the name of one of them before it can be sold. In short, it has nothing to do with the stepwife.

Hope this helps you.

Whoever has the name in the real estate deed has the right to sell the house, and the oral agreement has no legal effect, and half of the house B is female. The stepwife can only get half of the male A.

1. It is difficult to adduce evidence, it is usually counted as the joint property of the husband and wife, if there is evidence, the down payment part belongs to the man's personal property before marriage, and the loan repayment part belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife. 2. It is recommended to make a prenuptial personal property agreement and be fair. 3. It belongs to the man's personal property, which will not be divided in the event of divorce, and does not need to be signed by his wife, and notarization is the safest.

First, the house is a joint property of the marriage, and the down payment is a marital debt.

Second, it is difficult to answer your question, like doing a bar exam question, theoretically speaking, if the man pays the down payment and repays the loan alone, he must first prove that he repaid the loan with his personal property, in which case the house can belong to the individual, and in legal practice, this burden of proof is difficult.

Third, if the house is not transferred, it does not constitute a gift. In the case of immovable property, I believe that if the property is transferred directly to the man, the donor is clearly stated, and there is no need to ask the woman for signature alone. In addition, the real estate bureau will also require a notarization of the gift at the time of transfer, and the signature at this time is also a key evidence.