The man s fa ade room is rebuilt after marriage, and the woman has a share

Updated on society 2024-05-29
39 answers
  1. Anonymous users2024-02-11

    In fact, these women don't have them, because it's just a façade that doesn't belong to changing his essence, but these belong to the man and will also belong to the woman, because everyone is a husband and wife.

  2. Anonymous users2024-02-10

    Of course, it won't be that simple, and you must speak according to the facts. It is the man's pre-marital property. However, after marriage, it is necessary to judge whether it is based on the length of time that two people have lived. is joint property.

  3. Anonymous users2024-02-09

    The façade room before marriage is rebuilt after marriage, and the woman certainly has a share, but only part of it, because the façade room is available before marriage.

  4. Anonymous users2024-02-08

    The alteration is still a pre-marital property, of course, the woman has no share, if she has a share, she can only share the increase in value.

  5. Anonymous users2024-02-07

    The façade house in the south is rebuilt after marriage, if it is expanded, then the woman has a share, and if it is rebuilt, it is also a share, but if the door is only changed, then there is no.

  6. Anonymous users2024-02-06

    This is a pre-marital property, even if he has been remodeled, but the house is still the man's, so the woman has no share.

  7. Anonymous users2024-02-05

    If Blue South Ming Mian rebuilds after marriage, of course the woman has a share, because you participated in the money of his reconstruction.

  8. Anonymous users2024-02-04

    It's a strange question you asked, the façade house in the south was rebuilt after marriage, and of course the woman also had a share.

  9. Anonymous users2024-02-03

    The façade in the south was rebuilt after it was empty, and this woman should also have a share. This is marital property.

  10. Anonymous users2024-02-02

    Men don't have a face house, and it also costs some money to rebuild after marriage, and then it is rebuilt, of course, there is also your share here.

  11. Anonymous users2024-02-01

    Half of the money spent after marriage. The façade room has nothing to do with you.

  12. Anonymous users2024-01-31

    Since it is the name of the southern ** after the return is understood, the reconstruction has nothing to do with your hair, you have no share, this is a premarital property.

  13. Anonymous users2024-01-30

    If it is a post-marital reconstruction, you can ask the lawyer if the woman has a share, and others cannot participate.

  14. Anonymous users2024-01-29

    The woman has a share in the post-marital improvement, because the post-marital improvement also belongs to the joint property of both husband and wife.

  15. Anonymous users2024-01-28

    The man's façade house is rebuilt after marriage, and if the woman's name is not on the real estate certificate, there is no woman's share.

  16. Anonymous users2024-01-27

    If my façade house is remodeled after marriage. Then the woman should have a share.

  17. Anonymous users2024-01-26

    The southern façade house is rebuilt after marriage, does the woman have a share? After marriage, because the woman has no share, if the man is willing to give you a share, if he is not willing to give you, he will not have a share.

  18. Anonymous users2024-01-25

    Divorce can only divide the marital property, and there is no right to divide the property before the marriage and not in the name of the spouse.

  19. Anonymous users2024-01-24

    The one who runs the store is the joint property.

  20. Anonymous users2024-01-23

    Everything you buy after marriage belongs to the joint property of the husband and wife! Only those who understand the law can understand.

  21. Anonymous users2024-01-22

    There is no need for justice, it is the joint property of the husband and wife, regardless of whose name it is.

  22. Anonymous users2024-01-21

    Spend some money to find a lawyer to talk to.

  23. Anonymous users2024-01-20

    Woman's], buddy is in trouble.

  24. Anonymous users2024-01-19

    The two parties went to the local real estate trading center to transfer the ownership to the man's name, and waited for the new property certificate to be obtained.

  25. Anonymous users2024-01-18

    You can go to the real estate management department to transfer the ownership, bring the household registration book, ID card, real estate certificate, land use certificate, if there is a receipt.

  26. Anonymous users2024-01-17

    Required: the original real estate certificate, the original and copy of the original ID card of both men and women, and you may have to pay some taxes and fees due to different local policies.

  27. Anonymous users2024-01-16

    Tianjin Lawyer Li (Professional Divorce Lawyer):

    It must be handled by the woman, and if the woman does not cooperate, the man can only sue to settle the matter. Lawyers should know that what the client needs is not a pile of legal provisions, but a solution to the problem. Lawyer Li believes that:

    Providing free legal advice is a way for lawyers to give back to society, and lawyers handling divorce cases should aim to close the case and leave no hidden dangers.

  28. Anonymous users2024-01-15

    The man holds the original divorce agreement signed by both parties, the original real estate certificate, the original land certificate, and the original ID card, and goes to the real estate and land management department to go through the transfer procedures, and only pays the cost of work and does not call other taxes and fees.

  29. Anonymous users2024-01-14

    Hukou book, house ownership certificate, ID card, that's probably it.

  30. Anonymous users2024-01-13

    Dear, Since the property is in the name of the husband and wife, then it is the joint property of the husband and wife, and now the agreement has come into effect, that is, the property is to be left to the children, and now the man's parents have no property rights at all and cannot get the property back.

  31. Anonymous users2024-01-12

    Can't ask for back. The man's parents contributed to the purchase of a house to the young couple, which is legally called a gift. I can't go back now.

  32. Anonymous users2024-01-11

    If they can prove that they paid for it, it should be possible.

  33. Anonymous users2024-01-10

    If you can prove that you bought it with funding, you can.

  34. Anonymous users2024-01-09

    Yes, but the man's parents must provide evidence such as invoices for the purchase of the façade house.

  35. Anonymous users2024-01-08

    Probably not, you have an agreement.

  36. Anonymous users2024-01-07

    Whether the loan is a pre-marriage loan or a post-marriage loan.

    Before marriage, the husband borrowed money for the operation of the store, and the business income was not used for family life, and the husband assumed full responsibility for the loan.

    Loans after marriage, divorce can be negotiated with the man. The husband gives a certain amount of monetary compensation or the husband bears the entire loan.

    If not, you need to analyze your income during the marriage. If the man's income is good, and your income is very small, or you do not have a job, then it is advisable to hire a lawyer. Divorce through judicial means.

    If the man's business is not good and his income is small, then the loan after the marriage is also a debt of both parties, even if the loan is all used in the store, you cannot rule out the man's business income for family life, and you also have part of the loan liability in the event of divorce.

  37. Anonymous users2024-01-06

    Hello does not belong to one party who paid all the house price before marriage and obtained the real estate certificate, it is premarital property, and the premarital property belongs to the personal property of the husband and wife, and the other party has no right to ask for division in the event of divorce. If one party pays the full amount of the house before the marriage, and obtains the real estate certificate after the marriage, this is essentially the same as the first case, the only difference is that the time when the real estate certificate is obtained is different. In this case, it is also pre-marital property, which belongs to one party, and in the event of divorce, the other party has no right to claim a division.

  38. Anonymous users2024-01-05

    If the debt is incurred during the marriage and is not a personal debt of the husband, the creditor can sue both the husband and the woman to repay the debt, even if the parties have agreed that the debt will be borne by the man. In this case, whether or not the husband has to pay the debt himself depends entirely on how many people the creditor chooses to sue. In addition, if the divorce procedures have been completed, it is legally a real divorce.

    The so-called "fake divorce" of the folk divorce without leaving the family is not protected by law.

  39. Anonymous users2024-01-04

    Hehe, this kind of IQ, hey, it's hard.

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